Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Liver function tests.
• C. Blood glucose levels.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important laboratory test for an LPN/LVN to monitor for a client with schizophrenia being treated with clozapine is the white blood cell count. Clozapine treatment is associated with a risk of agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count regularly helps to detect this adverse effect early. Liver function tests (Choice B) are important to monitor with some antipsychotic medications but are not the most crucial for clozapine. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) are more relevant for monitoring in clients on medications like atypical antipsychotics that can cause metabolic side effects. Platelet count (Choice D) is not typically affected by clozapine therapy and is not the most important test to monitor in this case.

2. A female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is describing her obsessions and compulsions and asks the nurse why these make her feel safer. What information should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? (select one that does not apply.)

• A. Compulsions relieve anxiety
• B. Anxiety is the key reason for OCD
• C. Obsessions cause compulsions
• D. Obsessive thoughts are linked to levels of neurochemicals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Obsessions do not cause compulsions; rather, obsessions are intrusive, unwanted thoughts, images, or urges that trigger intensely distressing feelings, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rules that must be applied rigidly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because compulsions are behaviors or mental acts aimed at reducing distress or preventing a dreaded event or situation. Choice B is incorrect because while anxiety is often a significant component of OCD, it is not the only reason for the disorder. Choice D is incorrect because obsessive thoughts are not solely linked to levels of neurochemicals but are more complex and multifactorial.

3. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

4. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

5. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while she vigorously does push-ups and then runs the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to toss chairs aside, looking for a red one to sit in. When another client objects to the disturbance, the client shouts, 'I am the boss here. I do what I want.' Which nursing problem best supports these observations?

• A. Deficient diversional activity related to excess energy level.
• B. Risk for other-directed violence related to disruptive behavior.
• C. Risk for activity intolerance related to hyperactivity.
• D. Disturbed personal identity related to grandiosity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's disruptive and potentially harmful behavior, including tossing chairs and claiming authority, indicates a risk for other-directed violence. This behavior poses a threat to the safety of the client and others. While the client may have excess energy, the primary concern is the potential for violence, not just a lack of diversional activities (Choice A). The client's behavior is not solely due to hyperactivity leading to activity intolerance (Choice C) or grandiosity affecting personal identity (Choice D), making these options less appropriate in this context.

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