Nursing Elites

1. Which client outcome indicates improvement for a client who is admitted with auditory hallucinations?

• A. Argues with the voices.
• B. Tells when voices decrease.
• C. Follows what the voices say.
• D. Tells the nurse what the voices say.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Tells when voices decrease.' This outcome indicates improvement because it shows that the client is experiencing a reduction in auditory hallucinations. By communicating that the voices are decreasing, it suggests that the client's symptoms are improving and the treatment is effective. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Arguing with the voices (A) indicates ongoing engagement with the hallucinations, which is not a positive outcome. Following what the voices say (C) suggests compliance with the hallucinations, which is not indicative of improvement. Lastly, telling the nurse what the voices say (D) does not necessarily demonstrate a reduction in hallucinations or improvement in the client's condition.

2. Which diet selection by a client who is depressed and taking the MAO inhibitor tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by this medication regimen?

• A. Hamburger, French fries, and chocolate milkshake.
• B. Liver and onions, broccoli, and decaffeinated coffee.
• C. Pepperoni and cheese pizza, tossed salad, and a soft drink.
• D. Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is (D) Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea. This diet selection indicates that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by taking tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) because it does not contain tyramine. Tyramine in foods can interact with MAO inhibitors like Parnate, leading to a hypertensive crisis, which is life-threatening. Choices (A, B, and C) contain foods high in tyramine like cheese, pepperoni, and chocolate, which are contraindicated for clients taking MAO inhibitors.

3. A client states that she hears God's voice telling her that she has sinned and needs to punish herself. Which response by the LPN/LVN is most important?

• A. How do you think you will be punished?
• B. Please tell staff when you think you need to punish yourself.
• C. What exactly do you think you have done to be punished?
• D. Let's talk about your strengths

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important response by the LPN/LVN is to encourage the client to communicate with staff when they feel the need to punish themselves. This approach can help assess the risk of self-harm and enable appropriate intervention. Choice A focuses more on the method of punishment rather than encouraging help-seeking behavior. Choice C seeks specific details about the perceived wrongdoing rather than addressing the immediate concern of self-punishment. Choice D, discussing strengths, does not directly address the client's current distress and potential self-harm risk.

4. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
• B. You may start feeling better within 1 to 2 weeks.
• C. The medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective.
• D. You may experience side effects such as dry mouth or dizziness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching the client that the medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective is crucial as it helps set realistic expectations. While choice A is important to reduce nausea, it is not the most critical information to provide initially. Choice B is incorrect as improvement usually occurs after several weeks of treatment, not within 1 to 2 weeks. Choice D is also relevant, but informing about the full effectiveness of the medication is more important for long-term adherence.

5. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

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