HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health 2023
1. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?
- A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
- B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
- C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
- D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.
2. A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation. Her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the last six months. The client has not gone to work for a month and has been terminated from her job. She has not left the house since that time. This client is displaying symptoms of what condition?
- A. Claustrophobia
- B. Acrophobia
- C. Agoraphobia
- D. Post-traumatic stress disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agoraphobia. Agoraphobia is the fear of crowds or being in open places, often leading individuals to avoid situations where they feel trapped, insecure, or out of control. In the case described, the client's reluctance to leave home, avoidance of work, and isolation within the house are indicative of agoraphobia. Claustrophobia (A) is the fear of closed places, while acrophobia (B) is the fear of high places. Post-traumatic stress disorder (D) involves the development of anxiety symptoms following a traumatic event, characterized by terror, fear, and helplessness, and is different from a phobia.
3. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?
- A. Take this medication at the first sign of anxiety.
- B. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.
- C. You may experience weight gain while taking this medication.
- D. This medication may cause vivid dreams.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client prescribed alprazolam is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abruptly stopping alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medication at the first sign of anxiety is not the key teaching point. Choice C is incorrect because weight gain is not a common side effect of alprazolam. Choice D is incorrect because vivid dreams are not a significant concern compared to the risks of abrupt discontinuation of the medication.
4. A client with borderline personality disorder tells the nurse, 'You're the only one who understands me. The other nurses don't care about me.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Why do you feel that way about the other nurses?
- B. The other nurses care about you too.
- C. I am here to help you just like the other nurses.
- D. Let's talk about why you feel this way.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate response is 'I am here to help you just like the other nurses' (C). This response sets boundaries and avoids reinforcing the client's splitting behavior, which is common in borderline personality disorder. Choices A and D may unintentionally reinforce the splitting by focusing on the negative perception of other nurses. Choice B might be perceived as dismissive because it contradicts the client's feelings of being understood only by the nurse.
5. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
- B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
- C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
- D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.
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