HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health 2023
1. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?
- A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
- B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
- C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
- D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.
2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?
- A. Take this medication at the first sign of anxiety.
- B. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.
- C. You may experience weight gain while taking this medication.
- D. This medication may cause vivid dreams.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client prescribed alprazolam is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abruptly stopping alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medication at the first sign of anxiety is not the key teaching point. Choice C is incorrect because weight gain is not a common side effect of alprazolam. Choice D is incorrect because vivid dreams are not a significant concern compared to the risks of abrupt discontinuation of the medication.
3. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?
- A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
- B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
- C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
- D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.
4. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to focus on reality-based activities.
- B. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
- C. Ask the client to describe the voices he hears.
- D. Encourage the client to interact with others who are not experiencing hallucinations.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to encourage the client to focus on reality-based activities. This intervention helps redirect their attention away from hallucinations, promoting engagement with the environment. Choice B is incorrect as telling the client that the voices are not real may invalidate their experiences and worsen the therapeutic relationship. Choice C may increase the client's distress by focusing on the hallucinations. Choice D might not be helpful as interacting with others who are not experiencing hallucinations may not address the client's current needs.
5. The nurse asks a female client with borderline personality disorder, 'How do you feel about your children not coming to visit this weekend?' The client looks out the window and replies, 'I really don't care.' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. I noticed you were looking out the window when discussing your feelings.
- B. I think you're lying and it bothers you that your children aren't coming.
- C. I think you should discuss your children not coming in the group meeting.
- D. Why do you think your children didn't want to come visit you this weekend?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acknowledging the client's non-verbal behavior, such as looking out the window, demonstrates active listening and provides the client with an opportunity to explore their feelings further. Choice B is incorrect as it accuses the client of lying without any evidence, which can damage the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's feelings and suggests a group discussion without addressing the client's emotions directly. Choice D is also incorrect as it focuses on the children's actions rather than the client's feelings, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.
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