a teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health 2023

1. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.

2. A male client who is participating in an anger management assignment asks if he can make a leather belt in occupational therapy. The client begins pounding the leather vigorously with a mallet to imprint designs on the belt. What defense mechanism is the client using?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sublimation. Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities, such as art or work. In this scenario, the client is channeling his anger into a creative and constructive task like making a leather belt. Choice B, Suppression, involves consciously pushing down or hiding feelings rather than expressing them through alternate means. Choice C, Regression, refers to reverting to earlier, immature behaviors when faced with stress. Choice D, Compensation, involves making up for a perceived weakness in one area by excelling in another, which is not demonstrated in the scenario provided.

3. Which client outcome indicates improvement for a client who is admitted with auditory hallucinations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Tells when voices decrease.' This outcome indicates improvement because it shows that the client is experiencing a reduction in auditory hallucinations. By communicating that the voices are decreasing, it suggests that the client's symptoms are improving and the treatment is effective. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Arguing with the voices (A) indicates ongoing engagement with the hallucinations, which is not a positive outcome. Following what the voices say (C) suggests compliance with the hallucinations, which is not indicative of improvement. Lastly, telling the nurse what the voices say (D) does not necessarily demonstrate a reduction in hallucinations or improvement in the client's condition.

4. A male adolescent is admitted with bipolar disorder after being released from jail for assault with a deadly weapon. When the nurse asks the teen to identify his reason for the assault, he replies, 'Because he made me mad!' Which goal is best for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care? The client will

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's response indicates poor impulse control, a common issue in individuals with bipolar disorder. The most critical goal for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care is to help the client control impulsive actions toward self and others. This goal is essential for preventing harmful behaviors and mitigating the social consequences associated with impulsivity. While outlining methods for managing anger, verbalizing feelings when anger occurs, and recognizing consequences for behaviors exhibited are important aspects of therapy, they do not directly address the urgent need to control impulsive behavior in this case.

5. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.

Similar Questions

The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has been prescribed lithium carbonate. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed valproic acid (Depakote). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?
A 72-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. Which statement by the client should be of greatest concern to the nurse and require further assessment?
The wife of a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia visits 2 days after her husband's admission and states to the nurse, 'Why isn't he eating? He's still talking about his food being poisoned.' Which of the following appraisals by the LPN/LVN is most accurate?
An elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. The client repeatedly tells the staff, 'Take me home. I want my Mommy.' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

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