Nursing Elites

1. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?

• A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
• B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
• C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
• D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.

2. During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. While interviewing the client, the nurse notes a discrepancy between the client's verbal and nonverbal communication. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages
• B. Ask the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy
• C. Ignore the nonverbal behavior and focus on the client's verbal messages
• D. Integrate the verbal and nonverbal messages and interpret them as one

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Noting both verbal and nonverbal cues is crucial to fully understand the client's condition and any potential underlying issues. Verbal communication may not always align with nonverbal cues, which can provide valuable insights into the client's emotional state and concerns. By paying close attention to and documenting the nonverbal messages, the nurse can gather a more comprehensive understanding of the client's situation. Asking the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy may not be appropriate as it could lead to misinterpretation or breach of confidentiality. Ignoring the nonverbal behavior could result in missing essential cues affecting the overall assessment. Integrating both verbal and nonverbal messages helps in forming a holistic view of the client's needs and concerns, enabling better care delivery.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed valproic acid (Depakote). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

• A. Liver function tests.
• B. Kidney function tests.
• C. Thyroid function tests.
• D. Complete blood count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Monitoring liver function tests is crucial for clients prescribed valproic acid (Depakote) due to the medication's potential to affect liver function and increase the risk of liver toxicity. While kidney function tests (choice B), thyroid function tests (choice C), and complete blood count (choice D) are important in various clinical scenarios, the priority when administering valproic acid is to monitor liver function to prevent adverse effects associated with this medication.

4. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
• D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

5. A female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitor the client's vital signs regularly.
• B. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• C. Offer the client frequent, high-calorie snacks.
• D. Weigh the client daily at the same time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh the client daily at the same time. Daily weights are crucial in monitoring the client's nutritional status and guiding treatment for weight restoration in anorexia nervosa. Monitoring vital signs is important but weighing the client daily takes precedence in this situation. Encouraging group therapy and offering high-calorie snacks are important aspects of treatment but do not take priority over monitoring the client's weight.

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