HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI 2023
1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?
- A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
- B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
- C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
- D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.
2. A client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on medication is being discharged from the hospital. What discharge teaching is most important for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?
- A. The importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen.
- B. How to recognize early signs of relapse.
- C. The need to continue follow-up appointments with the healthcare provider.
- D. The importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle, including proper diet and exercise.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reinforcing the importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial for preventing relapse in clients with schizophrenia. Compliance with medication is essential in managing the symptoms and preventing a worsening of the condition. Choice B, recognizing early signs of relapse, is important but secondary to ensuring medication adherence. Choice C, follow-up appointments, is also important but not as critical as medication compliance immediately post-discharge. Choice D, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly linked to preventing relapse in schizophrenia as medication adherence.
3. A 40-year-old male client diagnosed with schizophrenia and alcohol dependence has not had any visitors or phone calls since admission. He reports he has no family that cares about him and was living on the streets prior to this admission. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which stage is the client in at this time?
- A. Isolation.
- B. Stagnation.
- C. Despair.
- D. Role confusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client is in Erikson's 'Generativity vs. Stagnation' stage (age 24 to 45). This stage involves maintaining intimate relationships and moving toward developing a family, which the client seems to be struggling with due to lack of visitors and family support. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect. Isolation typically occurs in young adulthood (age 18 to 25), Despair in maturity (age 45 to death), and Role confusion in adolescence (age 12 to 20). These stages reflect challenges individuals face if they do not successfully navigate their psychosocial developmental tasks.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who is withdrawn and refuses to participate in group activities. What is the best nursing intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to attend at least one group session.
- B. Respect the client's wish to remain isolated.
- C. Arrange for individual therapy sessions.
- D. Offer the client a list of activities to choose from.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to attend at least one group session is the best nursing intervention in this scenario. By gently encouraging participation, the nurse can help the client start to engage with others, which may gradually improve their mood and social interaction. Choice B, respecting the client's wish to remain isolated, may further exacerbate the client's withdrawal and depression by reinforcing avoidance behavior. Choice C, arranging for individual therapy sessions, can be beneficial but may not address the specific need for social interaction. Choice D, offering a list of activities to choose from, does not directly address the client's difficulty in participating in group activities and may not provide the necessary support in overcoming social withdrawal.
5. An anxious client expressing a fear of people and open places is admitted to the psychiatric unit. What is the most effective way for the nurse to assist this client?
- A. Plan an outing within the second week of admission.
- B. Distract the client whenever they express discomfort about being with others.
- C. Confront the client's fears and discuss the possible causes of these fears.
- D. Accompany the client outside for an increasing amount of time each day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most effective way to assist a client with a fear of people and open places is through gradual desensitization by controlled exposure to the situation which is feared (D). This method helps the client confront their fears in a safe and supportive manner, allowing them to gradually build confidence and reduce anxiety. Planning an outing within the second week of admission (A) may be too soon and overwhelming for the client. Distracting the client whenever they express discomfort (B) does not address the underlying issue and may promote denial. Confronting the client's fears and discussing possible causes (C) could be too aggressive initially and may not be well-tolerated by the client.
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