a client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an ssri after one week the client reports feeling no improvement in mood what is the best respon
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI 2023

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

2. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy indicate the need for gastric lavage. Gastric lavage is a procedure used to remove toxic substances from the stomach in cases where the patient is unresponsive or unable to cooperate. Choice A is incorrect as the time of ingestion alone does not indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice B, although indicating a significant overdose, does not directly necessitate gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as it provides information about the possible psychological motivation for repeated suicide attempts, but it is not directly related to the immediate need for gastric lavage in this scenario.

3. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness to instructions and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy would make it challenging to implement such therapy effectively. In such cases, gastric lavage may be necessary to remove the ingested substance. Choices A and B are important considerations in treatment planning but do not directly indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as medical treatments should never be used as punitive measures but rather for therapeutic purposes.

4. An elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. The client repeatedly tells the staff, 'Take me home. I want my Mommy.' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her. Providing reassurance and presence is more therapeutic in dealing with a client who has advanced dementia and is expressing a desire to go home and be with her mother. Option A might not be effective as continuously orienting the client may not alleviate her distress. Option C, reminding the client that her mother is no longer living, can be distressing and may not be appropriate in this situation. Option D, explaining the seriousness of the injury and need for hospitalization, is not the best response as it does not address the client's emotional needs at that moment.

5. At the first meeting of a group of older adults at a daycare center for the elderly, the LPN/LVN asks one of the members what kinds of things she would like to do with the group. The older woman shrugs her shoulders and says, 'You tell me, you're the leader.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is choice B: 'Yes, I will be leading this group. What would you like to accomplish during this time?' This response acknowledges the member's comment and encourages her to share her interests, promoting engagement and active participation in group activities. Choice A is not as inclusive and may not foster collaboration within the group. Choice C focuses more on the nurse's assignment rather than addressing the member's input. Choice D assumes emotions that were not expressed by the group member and does not encourage open communication.

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