a client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an ssri after one week the client reports feeling no improvement in mood what is the best respon
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI 2023

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

2. A client with an eating disorder is planning to attend group meetings with Overeaters Anonymous. The LPN/LVN describes this group to the client, knowing that which finding(s) are characteristic of this form of self-help group? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Overeaters Anonymous is a self-help group characterized by shared goals among members to address eating disorders. This provides a supportive environment for personal change and growth. Choice B is incorrect as members are not required to remain anonymous in Overeaters Anonymous. Choice C is incorrect as the leader in such self-help groups is usually a member who has experienced similar issues, not necessarily a professional mental health care provider. Choice D is incorrect as attendance at Overeaters Anonymous meetings is voluntary and not prescribed by a healthcare provider.

3. The LPN/LVN should include which interventions in the plan of care for a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms? (select one that does not apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms, the care plan should include rest, simple communication, suicide precautions, monitoring intake, and encouraging mild exercise. Limiting and discouraging food and fluid intake is not appropriate as proper nutrition and hydration are essential for overall well-being. This choice could lead to further complications and is not recommended in the care of a depressed client.

4. A female client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most therapeutic response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the client's experience while gently presenting reality can help build trust and provide reassurance without reinforcing the hallucination.

5. An LPN/LVN is conducting an initial assessment on a client in crisis. When assessing the client's perception of the precipitating event that led to the crisis, the appropriate question to ask is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct question to ask when assessing a client's perception of the precipitating event that led to a crisis is 'What leads you to seek help now?' This question directly addresses the client's current situation and triggers that brought them to seek assistance. Choices A and B are more focused on the client's social support system rather than the root cause of the crisis. Choice D addresses coping mechanisms rather than the actual trigger for seeking help.

Similar Questions

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