Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The client asks, 'Why do I have to take medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. The medication will help stabilize your mood and prevent mood swings.
• B. You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.
• C. The medication will help you feel better and more in control of your emotions.
• D. The medication is needed to control your symptoms and help you function better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response by the nurse is to explain that the medication will help stabilize the client's mood and prevent mood swings. This response provides the client with a clear understanding of how the medication works in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is not the best response as it may cause unnecessary worry about lifelong medication dependence. Choice C is not as specific in addressing the purpose of the medication for bipolar disorder. Choice D is not as focused on the effect of the medication on mood stabilization, which is crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

2. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

3. A young adult male client, diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia, believes that the world is trying to poison him. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Remind the client that his suspicions are not true
• B. Ask one nurse to spend time with the client daily
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities
• D. Assign the client to a room closest to the activity room

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia who believes in paranoid delusions is to ask one nurse to spend time with the client daily. Establishing a trusting relationship with a consistent caregiver can help reduce anxiety and foster a sense of security. Choice A is incorrect because directly challenging the client's beliefs may increase distress. Choice C might overwhelm the client with paranoia in a group setting. Choice D does not address the need for a trusting relationship with a specific caregiver.

4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?

• A. Take this medication at the first sign of anxiety.
• B. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.
• C. You may experience weight gain while taking this medication.
• D. This medication may cause vivid dreams.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client prescribed alprazolam is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abruptly stopping alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medication at the first sign of anxiety is not the key teaching point. Choice C is incorrect because weight gain is not a common side effect of alprazolam. Choice D is incorrect because vivid dreams are not a significant concern compared to the risks of abrupt discontinuation of the medication.

5. A client with depression is prescribed an SSRI. The client asks, 'Why do I need to take this medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. This medication will help balance the chemicals in your brain.
• B. This medication needs to be taken regularly to be effective.
• C. This medication will start working immediately to improve your mood.
• D. You should take this medication only when you feel sad or depressed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Explaining that the medication may take several weeks to take full effect helps manage the client's expectations and encourages adherence to the prescribed treatment.

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