Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The client asks, 'Why do I have to take medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. The medication will help stabilize your mood and prevent mood swings.
• B. You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.
• C. The medication will help you feel better and more in control of your emotions.
• D. The medication is needed to control your symptoms and help you function better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response by the nurse is to explain that the medication will help stabilize the client's mood and prevent mood swings. This response provides the client with a clear understanding of how the medication works in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is not the best response as it may cause unnecessary worry about lifelong medication dependence. Choice C is not as specific in addressing the purpose of the medication for bipolar disorder. Choice D is not as focused on the effect of the medication on mood stabilization, which is crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

2. A client, who is on a 30-day commitment to a drug rehabilitation unit, asks the nurse if he can go for a walk on the grounds of the treatment center. When he is told that his privileges do not include walking on the grounds, the client becomes verbally abusive. Which approach will the nurse take?

• A. Call a staff member to escort the client to his room.
• B. Tell the client to talk to his healthcare provider about his privileges.
• C. Remind the client of the unit rules.
• D. Ignore the client's inappropriate behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: (C) is the correct approach in this situation as it reinforces unit rules, setting clear boundaries and expectations. By reminding the client of the unit rules, the nurse is helping to maintain a safe and structured environment within the drug rehabilitation unit. (A) is unnecessary since the client's behavior does not warrant immediate physical intervention. (B) is not ideal because the client's privileges have already been explained, and suggesting he speak to his healthcare provider may not address the immediate issue. (D) is not appropriate as addressing inappropriate behavior is essential in a therapeutic setting.

3. The client is planning discharge for a male client with schizophrenia. The client insists that he is returning to his apartment, although the healthcare provider informed him that he will be moving to a boarding home. What is the most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning?

• A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
• B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
• C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
• D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best nursing diagnosis is (A) because the client is unable to acknowledge the move to a boarding home. While (B, C, and D) are potential nursing diagnoses, denial is the most critical as it is a defense mechanism preventing the client from addressing his feelings regarding the change in living arrangements.

4. A female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitor the client's vital signs regularly.
• B. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• C. Offer the client frequent, high-calorie snacks.
• D. Weigh the client daily at the same time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh the client daily at the same time. Daily weights are crucial in monitoring the client's nutritional status and guiding treatment for weight restoration in anorexia nervosa. Monitoring vital signs is important but weighing the client daily takes precedence in this situation. Encouraging group therapy and offering high-calorie snacks are important aspects of treatment but do not take priority over monitoring the client's weight.

5. A nurse working in a psychiatric unit is assessing a client who appears to be responding to internal stimuli. The client is laughing and talking to himself. What is the nurse's best initial response?

• A. Approach the client and ask if he is hearing voices.
• B. Ignore the behavior as it is common in psychiatric settings.
• C. Encourage the client to express his thoughts verbally.
• D. Observe the client's behavior from a distance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Approaching the client and asking if he is hearing voices is the best initial response by the nurse. This action can help assess the situation and determine if the client is experiencing hallucinations that may require immediate intervention. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring the behavior could lead to missing important signs of distress or potential risks. Choice C may not address the immediate concern of assessing for hallucinations. Choice D is also not ideal as observing from a distance may not provide the necessary information for immediate assessment and intervention.

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