the nurse is preparing to administer phenelzine sulfate nardil to a client on the psychiatric unit which complaint related to administration of this d
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HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI Practice Questions

1. The nurse is preparing to administer phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) to a client on the psychiatric unit. Which complaint related to administration of this drug should the nurse expect this client to make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect of MAO inhibitors like phenelzine due to their anticholinergic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as indigestion, diarrhea, and pink urine are not commonly associated side effects of phenelzine.

2. A male client turns over a table in the dayroom of a psychiatric unit and threatens to throw a chair at another client. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client is displaying aggressive behavior, the most important action for the nurse to implement is to obtain staff assistance to help diffuse the escalating situation. This approach ensures the safety of all individuals involved and prevents the situation from escalating further. Calmly approaching the client and removing the chair directly could agitate the client further and pose a risk to the nurse. Offering feedback about the client's behavior may not address the immediate safety concerns. Summoning hospital security guards as a 'show of force' should be a last resort after other de-escalation attempts have failed, as it may further provoke the client.

3. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

4. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy indicate the need for gastric lavage. Gastric lavage is a procedure used to remove toxic substances from the stomach in cases where the patient is unresponsive or unable to cooperate. Choice A is incorrect as the time of ingestion alone does not indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice B, although indicating a significant overdose, does not directly necessitate gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as it provides information about the possible psychological motivation for repeated suicide attempts, but it is not directly related to the immediate need for gastric lavage in this scenario.

5. When a client with schizophrenia is being discharged on antipsychotic medication, what is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any unusual muscle movements immediately. These movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) or tardive dyskinesia, which are serious side effects of antipsychotic medications that require immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication without medical advice can lead to a relapse of symptoms. Choice B is important but not as critical as monitoring for EPS. Choice D is incorrect because driving readiness is not directly related to antipsychotic medication instructions.

Similar Questions

A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone (Risperdal). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly checks the locks on the doors. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
A male client is admitted to a mental health unit on Friday afternoon and is very upset on Sunday because he has not had the opportunity to talk with the healthcare provider. Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?
A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?
A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse should include which information in the client's discharge teaching?

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