Nursing Elites

1. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
• C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
• D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.

2. A 27-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric hospital with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. She is demanding and active. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Schedule noncompetitive activities that can be carried out alone.
• B. Monitor her decision-making process.
• C. Encourage her to identify feelings of anger.
• D. Provide a structured environment with little stimuli.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients in the manic phase of bipolar disorder require a structured environment with decreased stimuli to help manage their symptoms. Providing a structured environment with little stimuli (D) can help reduce the risk of escalating behaviors. Scheduling noncompetitive activities that can be carried out alone (A) is more appropriate than group activities as excessive stimuli should be avoided. Monitoring decision-making processes (B) is important due to impulsivity in manic phases. Encouraging the client to identify feelings of anger (C) is not the priority in managing manic symptoms, as it is more often associated with depression than bipolar disorder.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Depression
• C. Sun-downing syndrome
• D. Medication side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

4. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa). What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is known to cause significant weight gain in patients. This side effect is crucial to monitor because it can lead to metabolic syndrome, diabetes, and cardiovascular issues. Monitoring the client's weight regularly and providing appropriate dietary guidance is essential. Hypotension (choice A), dry mouth (choice C), and tachycardia (choice D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use and are not the primary side effects to monitor in this case.

5. The nurse is planning care for a 32-year-old male client diagnosed with HIV infection who has a history of chronic depression. Recently, the client's viral load has begun to increase rather than decrease despite his adherence to the HIV drug regimen. What should the nurse do first while taking the client's history upon admission to the hospital?

• A. Determine if the client attends a support group weekly.
• B. Hold all antidepressant medications until further notice.
• C. Ask the client if he takes St. John's Wort routinely.
• D. Have the client describe any recent changes in mood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's top priority upon admission is to determine if the client has been taking St. John's Wort, an herbal preparation often used for depression. St. John's Wort can interact adversely with medications used to treat HIV infection, potentially explaining the rise in the viral load (C). Asking about attending support groups (A) or recent changes in mood (D) may provide valuable information about the client's depression but is not as critical as determining St. John's Wort use. Holding antidepressant medications (B) without assessing for potential interactions can be harmful to the client.

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