Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine (Prozac). What should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective.
• B. You should take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective." SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take 4-6 weeks to reach their full effect, so clients should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because fluoxetine is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid consuming dairy products while taking fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect because clients should never stop taking antidepressants abruptly, as it can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.

2. What is the most therapeutic nursing response for a client with borderline personality disorder who engages in self-mutilating behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to stop hurting themselves.
• B. Discuss what the client was feeling before self-harming.
• C. Inform the client that the behavior will be reported to their doctor.
• D. Ask the client why they hurt themselves.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing response for a client with borderline personality disorder engaging in self-mutilating behavior is to discuss what the client was feeling before self-harming. This approach helps in exploring the underlying triggers and emotions that lead to self-harm. Option A is directive and may come across as judgmental rather than empathetic. Option C can lead to feelings of betrayal and breach of trust. Option D is a closed-ended question that may not facilitate open communication or exploration of emotions.

3. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

4. An LPN/LVN is conducting an initial assessment on a client in crisis. When assessing the client's perception of the precipitating event that led to the crisis, the appropriate question to ask is:

• A. With whom do you live?
• B. Who is available to help you?
• C. What leads you to seek help now?
• D. What do you usually do to feel better?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct question to ask when assessing a client's perception of the precipitating event that led to a crisis is 'What leads you to seek help now?' This question directly addresses the client's current situation and triggers that brought them to seek assistance. Choices A and B are more focused on the client's social support system rather than the root cause of the crisis. Choice D addresses coping mechanisms rather than the actual trigger for seeking help.

5. A male client with borderline personality disorder is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules. What is the best approach for the nurse to take?

• A. Enforce unit rules consistently with all clients.
• B. Ignore the manipulative behaviors to avoid confrontation.
• C. Provide the client with special privileges to avoid conflict.
• D. Confront the client directly about his behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse to take when dealing with a male client with borderline personality disorder who is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules is to enforce unit rules consistently with all clients. By maintaining consistency in enforcing rules, the nurse establishes clear boundaries and provides structure, which are essential for managing manipulative behavior in clients with borderline personality disorder. Ignoring the manipulative behaviors (Choice B) may lead to the reinforcement of negative behaviors. Providing the client with special privileges (Choice C) can enable further manipulation and is not recommended. Confronting the client directly about his behavior (Choice D) may escalate the situation and is less effective than consistent rule enforcement.

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