Nursing Elites

1. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?

• A. Dizziness when standing.
• B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Fever of 102°F.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.

2. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?

• A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
• B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
• C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
• D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.

3. A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the LPN/LVN, 'I hear voices telling me to hurt myself.' What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
• B. Tell the client that the voices will go away with medication.
• C. Monitor the client for signs of self-harm.
• D. Refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation. The client's statement indicating hearing voices telling them to hurt themselves is a serious concern and suggests a risk for self-harm. Referring the client for a psychiatric evaluation is crucial for further assessment and intervention by mental health professionals. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the voices may not address the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and does not address the immediate risk. Choice C is not as comprehensive as referring for a psychiatric evaluation, which is necessary in this situation.

4. A client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is pacing the hallway and talking rapidly. What is the best intervention for the nurse?

• A. Encourage the client to join a group activity.
• B. Offer the client a high-calorie snack and a drink.
• C. Direct the client to a quieter area of the unit.
• D. Instruct the client to sit down and relax.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients often exhibit increased activity and may burn a lot of energy. Offering a high-calorie snack and a drink is the best intervention as it helps maintain their nutritional needs while allowing them to continue their activity. Encouraging the client to join a group activity (Choice A) may further stimulate their behavior. Directing the client to a quieter area (Choice C) might not address their energy expenditure. Instructing the client to sit down and relax (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase.

5. A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation. Her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the last six months. The client has not gone to work for a month and has been terminated from her job. She has not left the house since that time. This client is displaying symptoms of which disorder?

• A. Claustrophobia.
• B. Acrophobia.
• C. Agoraphobia.
• D. Necrophobia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Agoraphobia. Agoraphobia involves the fear of situations where escape might be difficult, often leading to the individual avoiding public spaces or leaving their home. In this case, the client's reluctance to leave home, not going to work, and staying indoors for an extended period align with the symptoms of agoraphobia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Claustrophobia is the fear of confined spaces, acrophobia is the fear of heights, and necrophobia is the fear of death or dead things, none of which are consistent with the client's symptoms described in the scenario.

Similar Questions