Nursing Elites

1. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?

• A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
• B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
• C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
• D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.

2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse should include which information in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. This medication can cause physical dependence.
• B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice improvement.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. You may experience sedation as a side effect.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Buspirone takes time to become fully effective, so the client should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in anxiety symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone is not associated with physical dependence. Choice C is not directly related to buspirone but is generally a good practice when taking any medication. Choice D is less common with buspirone compared to other anxiety medications.

3. At the first meeting of a group of older adults at a daycare center for the elderly, the nurse asks one of the members what kinds of things she would like to do with the group. The older woman shrugs her shoulders and says, 'You tell me, you're the leader.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?

• A. 'Yes, I am the leader today. Would you like to be the leader tomorrow?'
• B. 'Yes, I will be leading this group. What would you like to accomplish during this time?'
• C. 'Yes, I have been assigned to be the leader of this group. I will be here for the next six weeks.'
• D. 'Yes, I am the leader. You seem angry about not being the leader yourself.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: (B) provides information and focuses the group back to defining its function. (A) is manipulative bargaining. (C) does not focus on the group’s purpose. (D) challenges the client’s feelings.

4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours checking and rechecking the locks on the doors. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior.
• C. Prevent the client from checking the locks to break the cycle.
• D. Schedule specific times for the client to check the locks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a client with OCD who spends excessive time checking locks is to encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior. By exploring the underlying anxiety and triggers, the client can gain insight and work towards behavior modification. Choice A is incorrect because enabling the behavior does not address the underlying issues. Choice C is incorrect as it may lead to increased anxiety and distress. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the root cause of the behavior.

5. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?

• A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
• B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
• C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
• D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.

Similar Questions