Nursing Elites

1. A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates the nurse's mannerisms. The nurse knows that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Sublimation.
• B. Identification.
• C. Introjection.
• D. Repression.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is (B) Identification. In this scenario, the client is imitating the nurse's mannerisms, which is a form of identification, a defense mechanism where an individual adopts the characteristics or behaviors of someone they admire or view as powerful. (A) Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable actions, not imitation. (C) Introjection is the internalization of external qualities or attributes, not imitation. (D) Repression is the unconscious exclusion of painful thoughts or memories from awareness, which is not demonstrated in this case.

2. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
• B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
• C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

3. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

4. An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you
• B. It must be difficult for you to control your anxious feelings
• C. Go to occupational therapy and start a project
• D. You are not in a war area now; this is the United States

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Delusions often generate fear and isolation, so the nurse should help the client participate in activities that avoid focusing on the false belief and encourage interaction with others.

5. At a support meeting of parents of a teenager with polysubstance dependency, a parent states, 'Each time my son tries to quit taking drugs, he gets so depressed that I'm afraid he will commit suicide.' The nurse's response should be based on which information?

• A. Addiction is a chronic, incurable disease.
• B. Tolerance to the effects of drugs causes feelings of depression.
• C. Feelings of depression frequently lead to drug abuse and addiction.
• D. Careful monitoring should be provided during withdrawal from the drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response in this situation should focus on the connection between feelings of depression and drug abuse. Choice A is incorrect because addiction is treatable, not incurable. Choice B is incorrect as tolerance does not directly cause depression. Choice D is not the best response as the parent's concern is about the son's depression leading to suicidal thoughts, not just the withdrawal process.

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