Nursing Elites

1. What assessment is the priority focus for a client with major depression?

• A. Mood and affect.
• B. Suicidal ideation.
• C. Nutritional status.
• D. Fluid and electrolyte balance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suicidal ideation. When dealing with a client diagnosed with major depression, assessing for suicidal ideation is of utmost importance. Individuals with major depression have an increased risk of suicide; hence, evaluating their risk for self-harm is crucial. Mood and affect, while important, come secondary to ensuring the safety of the client. Nutritional status and fluid and electrolyte balance are essential components of care but are not the priority when dealing with a client with major depression.

2. A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and low motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?

• A. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
• B. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.
• C. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
• D. Encourage the client to exercise.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities is the most effective intervention in this case. Creating a routine can help improve motivation and provide a sense of accomplishment, aiding in the recovery process. Option A, providing education on methods to enhance sleep, may address hypersomnia but does not directly target psychomotor retardation and low motivation. Option C, suggesting the client develop a list of pleasurable activities, may not address the need for structure and routine. Option D, encouraging the client to exercise, is beneficial but may not be as effective as creating a structured daily plan to address the client's specific symptoms.

3. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?

• A. Very high temperature
• B. Muscular rigidity
• C. Tremors
• D. Altered consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.

4. Based on non-compliance with the medication regimen, an adult client with a medical diagnosis of substance abuse and schizophrenia was recently switched from oral fluphenazine HCl (Prolixin) to IM fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate). What is most important to teach the client and family about this change in medication regimen?

• A. Signs and symptoms of extrapyramidal effects (EPS).
• B. Information about substance abuse and schizophrenia.
• C. The effects of alcohol and drug interaction.
• D. The availability of support groups for those with dual diagnoses.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching about the effects of alcohol and drug interaction is crucial to prevent adverse reactions, especially with the long-acting injectable form of fluphenazine. Understanding how alcohol and drugs can interact with the medication will help the client and family to ensure medication effectiveness and avoid potential harmful effects. Choices A, B, and D are not the most important to teach in this scenario. While knowing the signs and symptoms of extrapyramidal effects (EPS) is important, understanding the effects of alcohol and drug interaction is more critical in this specific situation. Information about substance abuse and schizophrenia, as well as the availability of support groups, are essential aspects of care but are not the primary focus when switching to a long-acting injectable medication due to non-compliance.

5. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
• B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
• C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
• D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

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