HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam
1. In a long term rehabilitation care unit a client with spinal cord injury complains of a pounding headache. The client is sitting in a wheelchair watching television in the assigned room. Further assessment by the nurse reveals excessive sweating, a splotchy rash, pilomotor erection, facial flushing, congested nasal passages and a heart rate of 50. The nurse should do which action next?
- A. Take the client's respirations, blood pressure (BP), temperature and then pupillary responses
- B. Place the client into the bed and administer the ordered PRN analgesic
- C. Check the client for bladder distention and the client's urinary catheter for kinks
- D. Turn the television off and then assist client to use relaxation techniques
Correct answer: C
Rationale: These symptoms suggest autonomic dysreflexia, often triggered by bladder distention.
2. Which of these statements by the nurse is incorrect to use to reinforce information about cancers to a group of young adults?
- A. "You can reduce your risk of this serious type of stomach cancer by eating lots of fruits and vegetables, limiting red meat, and avoiding nitrate-containing foods."
- B. "Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in American men, impacting sexuality and life quality."
- C. "Colorectal cancer is the second-leading cause of cancer-related deaths in the United States."
- D. "Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths in the United States. However, it is the most preventable of all cancers."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The corrected statement in choice A emphasizes limiting red meat for the prevention of stomach cancer, which is more accurate than avoiding all meats. By focusing on red meat specifically, it provides clearer guidance to young adults. Choice B is not the correct answer as it provides accurate information about prostate cancer being the most common cancer in American men and its impact on sexuality and life quality. Choice C is also a valid statement, correctly highlighting colorectal cancer as the second-leading cause of cancer-related deaths in the United States. Choice D provides accurate information about lung cancer being the leading cause of cancer deaths in the United States and emphasizes its preventability among cancers, making it a valid statement for reinforcing information about cancers to young adults.
3. A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a
- A. Chest x-ray
- B. Blood culture
- C. Sputum culture
- D. PPD intradermal test
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.
4. The family presents several problems. Which of the following criteria is considered in determining the priority health problem?
- A. expected consequence of the problem
- B. cooperation and support of the family
- C. involvement of the family members in the problem
- D. modifiability of the problem
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When determining the priority health problem within a family, one key criterion to consider is the modifiability of the problem. This means assessing whether the health issue can be changed or improved through interventions. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the priority of the health problem within the family. The expected consequence of the problem, cooperation and support of the family, and involvement of family members are important factors but do not specifically address the priority of the health issue based on modifiability.
5. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Low serum albumin
- B. High serum cholesterol
- C. Abnormally low white blood cell count
- D. Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.
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