being the immediate supervisor of the rural health midwives the phn prepares a supervisory plan which of the following would be the phns activity
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

2. The nurse is teaching a community group about risks of cardiovascular disease. Several clients ask the nurse to determine their risk. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A male with a high LDL level (200 mg/dl) has a significant risk for cardiovascular disease. High levels of LDL cholesterol are associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and heart disease. Choices A, B, and D have serum cholesterol levels that are slightly elevated but are not as specific or directly linked to cardiovascular risk as high LDL levels. Therefore, the client with the high LDL level is at the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease.

3. The nurse is caring for an acutely ill 10-year-old client. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, slow, irregular respirations. In an acutely ill child, this assessment can indicate impending respiratory failure or neurological compromise, necessitating immediate intervention. Rapid bounding pulse (choice A) may indicate tachycardia but is not as immediately concerning as compromised respirations. A temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius (choice B) is elevated but may not be the most urgent concern unless accompanied by other symptoms. Profuse diaphoresis (choice C) can indicate increased sympathetic activity but is not as critical as respiratory compromise.

4. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.

5. The healthcare professional enters the room as a 3-year-old is having a generalized seizure. Which intervention should the healthcare professional do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the child on the side is the priority intervention during a generalized seizure as it helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration. Clearing the area of any hazards is important but should come after ensuring the child's safety. Restraining the child is not recommended during a seizure as it can lead to injury. Giving the prescribed anticonvulsant is important but should not be the first action during an ongoing seizure.

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