Nursing Elites

1. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

• A. performing needs assessment
• B. listing supervisory activities
• C. identifying the training needs
• D. formulating objectives for supervision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

2. After 3 days, the nurse notes that James has chest indrawing and stridor. His mother returned him to the health center immediately. The nurse should:

• A. Change the antibiotic to second-line antibiotics
• B. Advise the mother to observe the child and continue giving the antibiotics
• C. Give the first dose of antibiotics and refer urgently
• D. Observe the child at the center

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest indrawing and stridor are signs of severe respiratory distress. In this situation, immediate referral is essential. Giving the first dose of antibiotics before referral can help initiate treatment, but urgent referral for further evaluation and management is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because simply changing the antibiotic without assessing the severity of the symptoms and providing urgent care is not appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as advising the mother to observe the child and continue antibiotics delays necessary intervention for a potentially life-threatening condition. Choice D is incorrect as observing the child at the center is not sufficient when signs of severe illness are present.

3. When a nurse from the surgical department is reassigned to the pediatric unit, the charge nurse should recognize that the child at highest risk for cardiac arrest and is the least likely to be assigned to this nurse is which child?

• A. Congenital cardiac defects
• B. An acute febrile illness
• C. Prolonged hypoxemia
• D. Severe multiple trauma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Prolonged hypoxemia.' Prolonged hypoxemia is a critical condition that requires specialized pediatric care due to the high risk of cardiac arrest. The other choices, such as congenital cardiac defects, acute febrile illness, and severe multiple trauma, may also require attention, but prolonged hypoxemia poses the highest risk for cardiac arrest and demands specialized expertise in managing pediatric patients with this condition.

4. A 4-month-old child taking digoxin (Lanoxin) has a blood pressure of 92/78; resting pulse of 78; respirations 28, and a potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L. The client is irritable and has vomited twice since the morning dose of digoxin. Which finding is most indicative of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Lethargy
• C. Irritability
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) is a key sign of digoxin toxicity. In this scenario, the child's symptoms of irritability, vomiting, along with the resting pulse of 78 despite being on digoxin, suggest an impending bradycardia due to digoxin toxicity. Lethargy can also be a sign, but in this case, the child is irritable rather than lethargic. Vomiting, though a symptom, is not as specific to digoxin toxicity as bradycardia. Irritability, while present, is not the most indicative finding of digoxin toxicity compared to bradycardia.

5. The nurse is teaching a client about the healthy use of ego defense mechanisms. An appropriate goal for this client would be

• A. Reduce fear and protect self-esteem
• B. Minimize anxiety and delay apprehension
• C. Avoid conflict and leave unpleasant situations
• D. Increase independence and communicate more effectively

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Reduce fear and protect self-esteem.' When teaching a client about the healthy use of ego defense mechanisms, the goal is to help the individual manage emotions effectively without denying reality. Using defense mechanisms in a healthy way aims to reduce fear and protect self-esteem while still addressing underlying issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not focus on the core principles of using defense mechanisms in a healthy manner. Minimizing anxiety and delaying apprehension, avoiding conflict and leaving unpleasant situations, and increasing independence and communicating more effectively do not directly align with the goal of utilizing ego defense mechanisms in a constructive way.

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