while assessing an rh positive newborn whose mother is rh negative the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia which of the following should
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Community Health HESI Questions

1. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

2. The nurse is caring for an acutely ill 10-year-old client. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, slow, irregular respirations. In an acutely ill child, this assessment can indicate impending respiratory failure or neurological compromise, necessitating immediate intervention. Rapid bounding pulse (choice A) may indicate tachycardia but is not as immediately concerning as compromised respirations. A temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius (choice B) is elevated but may not be the most urgent concern unless accompanied by other symptoms. Profuse diaphoresis (choice C) can indicate increased sympathetic activity but is not as critical as respiratory compromise.

3. A 19-year-old client is paralyzed in a car accident. Which statement used by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client was using the mechanism of 'suppression'?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the statement "I'd rather not talk about it right now" indicates that the client is consciously choosing to avoid discussing the distressing issue, which aligns with the mechanism of suppression. Choice A does not involve active avoidance but rather memory loss, which is not suppression. Choice C involves blaming others, which is a defense mechanism known as projection. Choice D involves expressing emotions rather than avoiding them, which does not align with suppression.

4. Which of the following best describes the goal of primary health care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Promoting health and preventing illness.' Primary health care aims to provide essential health services, promote health, prevent diseases, and manage common health problems. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because primary health care focuses on a holistic approach to health that includes health promotion, disease prevention, treatment of common illnesses, and community participation, rather than specialized services, chronic disease treatment, or medical research.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

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