Nursing Elites

1. Which of these tests with frequency would the nurse expect to monitor for the evaluation of clients with poor glycemic control in persons aged 18 and older?

• A. A glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) should be performed during an initial assessment and during follow-up assessments, which should occur at no longer than 3-month intervals
• B. A glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at least twice a year
• C. A fasting glucose and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 3-month intervals after the initial assessment
• D. A glucose tolerance test, a fasting glucose, and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 6-month intervals after the initial assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) testing every 3 months is recommended for clients with poor glycemic control to monitor their average blood sugar levels and adjust treatment as necessary. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the guideline of performing A1c testing every 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because testing at least twice a year may not provide adequate monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions testing at 3-month intervals without specifying the importance of A1c testing. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary tests like glucose tolerance test and does not emphasize the importance of more frequent A1c monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control.

2. A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Blood culture
• C. Sputum culture
• D. PPD intradermal test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.

3. A child is diagnosed with poison ivy. The mother tells the nurse that she does not know how her child contracted the rash since he had not been playing in wooded areas. As the nurse asks questions about possible contact, which of the following would the nurse recognize as highest risk for exposure?

• A. Playing with toys in a backyard flower garden
• B. Eating small amounts of grass while playing 'farm'
• C. Playing with cars on the pavement near burning leaves
• D. Throwing a ball to a neighborhood child who has poison ivy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Poison ivy can be contracted through smoke from burning plants, which can carry the urushiol oil that causes the rash. Playing near burning leaves would be the highest risk for exposure in this scenario. Choices A, B, and D do not involve direct contact with burning plants or leaves, making them lower-risk activities for exposure to poison ivy.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with portal hypertension. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect?

• A. Expiratory wheezes
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ascites
• D. Dilated pupils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ascites is a common finding in clients with portal hypertension. Portal hypertension results in increased pressure in the portal vein, leading to the development of ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. Expiratory wheezes (Choice A) are associated with respiratory conditions. Blurred vision (Choice B) is more commonly linked to eye disorders or neurological issues. Dilated pupils (Choice D) can be related to neurological conditions or drug effects, but not specifically to portal hypertension.

5. At a nursing staff meeting, there is a discussion of perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. As a follow-up, what should the nurse manager do initially?

• A. Allow the staff to change assignments
• B. Clarify reasons for current assignments
• C. Help staff see the complexity of issues
• D. Facilitate creative thinking on staffing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facilitating creative thinking on staffing is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse manager in addressing perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. By encouraging creative thinking, the manager promotes innovative solutions and fosters a sense of ownership and collaboration among staff members. Choices A, B, and C are not the best initial steps in this situation. Allowing staff to change assignments may not address the underlying issues, clarifying reasons for current assignments may not resolve perceived inequities, and helping staff see the complexity of issues may not lead to actionable solutions.

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