HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A client postoperative expresses pain during dressing changes. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer pain medication 45 minutes before changing the client’s dressing.
- B. Change the dressing less frequently.
- C. Apply a topical anesthetic before removing the dressing.
- D. Use a non-adherent dressing to reduce pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering pain medication before changing the dressing is the priority action as it will help alleviate the client's pain and improve comfort. Choice B, changing the dressing less frequently, may hinder proper wound care and healing. Applying a topical anesthetic (choice C) might offer some relief but systemic pain medication is more effective. Using a non-adherent dressing (choice D) can reduce pain during dressing changes, but addressing immediate pain with medication is the most appropriate intervention in this case.
2. A client has a terminal diagnosis and their health is declining. The client requests information about advance directives. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Offering to discuss advance directives and provide brochures respects the client's request and provides information.
- B. Informing the client that advance directives are not necessary at this time is incorrect as they play a crucial role in end-of-life care.
- C. Scheduling a meeting with the family to discuss advance directives is not the most appropriate response as the client directly requested information.
- D. Directing the client to ask their provider about advance directives does not directly address the client's request for information.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with a terminal illness asks about advance directives, it is essential to provide the information they seek. Choice A is the correct response as it acknowledges the client's request and offers to discuss advance directives while providing additional resources in the form of brochures. This approach empowers the client to make informed decisions about their end-of-life care. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the client's request or provide the information the client is seeking. Choice B dismisses the importance of advance directives, which are crucial in end-of-life care planning. Choice C involves the family unnecessarily when the client directly requested information. Choice D deflects the responsibility back to the client to seek information from their provider instead of addressing their immediate request.
3. A client is being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
- B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- C. Arterial pH of 7.20
- D. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the most concerning laboratory value is an arterial pH of 7.20. An arterial pH of 7.20 indicates severe acidosis, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention. This pH level reflects a significant imbalance in the body's acid-base status, potentially leading to serious complications. High blood glucose levels (choice A) are expected in DKA but do not directly indicate the severity of acidosis. A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L (choice B) is low but not as immediately critical as a pH of 7.20. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L (choice D) is elevated, which can occur in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but it is not the most concerning value in this scenario.
4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to treatment?
- A. Dry mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased heart rate
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased urine output is the correct assessment finding that indicates the client is responding to treatment for dehydration. When a client is dehydrated, their urine output tends to decrease as the body tries to conserve fluids. Therefore, an increase in urine output suggests that the client's hydration status is improving. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration and would not indicate a positive response to treatment. Decreased heart rate (Choice C) and elevated blood pressure (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hydration status in a client with dehydration.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?
- A. 1/2 tablet.
- B. 1 tablet.
- C. 1 1/2 tablets.
- D. 2 tablets.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.
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