HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. When orienting a newly licensed nurse on taking a telephone prescription, which statement indicates understanding of the process?
- A. A second nurse enters the prescription into the client’s medical record.
- B. Another nurse should listen to the phone call.
- C. The provider can clarify the prescription when they sign the health record.
- D. I should omit the 'read back' if this is a one-time prescription.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a second nurse should verify and enter the prescription into the client’s medical record to ensure accuracy. This step is crucial to prevent errors in transcription and administration. Choice B is incorrect as having another nurse listen to the phone call does not ensure accurate transcription. Choice C is incorrect because the provider clarifying the prescription upon signing the health record does not replace the need for proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect because the 'read back' process is essential for all telephone prescriptions to confirm accuracy and prevent errors in transcription or administration.
2. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.
3. An adolescent client in an outpatient mental health facility tells the nurse that it is hard to follow his treatment plans because his friends discourage him. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Ask, 'Tell me more about how your friends discourage you.'
- B. Say, 'Your friends should support you, not discourage you.'
- C. Respond, 'It sounds like your friends are not supportive.'
- D. Suggest, 'You need to focus on your treatment plans regardless of your friends.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse is to ask the client to elaborate on how their friends discourage them. By doing so, the nurse shows empathy, encourages the client to express their feelings, and gains insight into the situation. This open-ended question can help the nurse understand the specific issues the client is facing and work towards finding solutions collaboratively. Choices B, C, and D do not effectively address the client's concerns or encourage further discussion. Choice B is directive and may come off as judgmental, choice C assumes the friends are not supportive without exploring further, and choice D dismisses the client's feelings and the impact of peer influence.
4. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?
- A. 16
- B. 12
- C. 6
- D. 14
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
5. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! When a client is taking furosemide (Lasix), monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the potential for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Low potassium levels can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by furosemide to the same extent as potassium, making them less critical to monitor in this scenario.
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