Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider about reducing the adverse effects of immobility. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will perform ankle and knee exercises every hour - Range of motion (ROM) is needed to prevent contractures.
• B. I will hold my breath when rising from a sitting position.
• C. I will remove my antiembolic stockings while I am in bed.
• D. I will have my partner help me change positions every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because performing ankle and knee exercises every hour helps prevent contractures and other adverse effects of immobility. Contractures are a common complication of immobility, and range of motion (ROM) exercises can help maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Holding the breath when rising from a sitting position can increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension, not reduce adverse effects of immobility. Removing antiembolic stockings while in bed can compromise their effectiveness in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is not a measure to reduce immobility-related complications. Having a partner help change positions every 4 hours may not be frequent enough to prevent immobility-related complications effectively; changing positions more frequently is usually recommended to prevent issues like pressure ulcers and muscle stiffness.

2. A client has restraints on each extremity. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform first?

• A. Peripheral pulses
• B. Comfort level
• C. Elimination needs
• D. Skin integrity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is restrained, the nurse should prioritize assessing peripheral pulses first. This assessment is crucial to monitor circulation and ensure the restraints are not impeding blood flow. Comfort level, elimination needs, and skin integrity are also important assessments; however, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence to prevent complications such as impaired circulation and tissue damage. By assessing peripheral pulses initially, the nurse can promptly identify and address any circulation issues, which are critical in preventing serious complications.

3. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

4. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

• A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
• B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
• C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
• D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

5. During the admission assessment of a terminally ill male client, he states that he is agnostic. What is the best nursing action in response to this statement?

• A. Provide information about the hours and location of the chapel
• B. Document the statement of the client’s spiritual assessment
• C. Invite the client to a healing service for people of all religions
• D. Offer to contact a spiritual advisor of the client’s choice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best nursing action in response to a terminally ill client stating their agnostic beliefs is to document the client's spiritual assessment. By documenting this information, the healthcare team can ensure that the client's beliefs are acknowledged and respected in their care plan. Providing information about the chapel's hours or inviting the client to a healing service may not align with the client's beliefs and preferences. Offering to contact a spiritual advisor of the client's choice may not be necessary if the client has clearly stated their agnostic beliefs, as they may not wish to engage in spiritual counseling.

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