HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following clients is at increased risk for body-image disturbances?
- A. A client who had a laparoscopic appendectomy
- B. A client who had a mastectomy
- C. A client who had a left above-the-knee amputation
- D. A client who had a cardiac catheterization
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients who have undergone significant visible body changes, like amputation, are at increased risk for body-image disturbances. Amputation can have a profound impact on self-image and body perception due to the visible structural alteration. While conditions like laparoscopic appendectomy, mastectomy, and cardiac catheterization may also affect body image, they are less likely to cause significant disturbances compared to visible changes like amputation.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication with the needle at a 45-degree angle.
- B. Administer the medication with the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Inject the medication into the muscle.
- D. Pinch the skin before injecting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Enoxaparin is a medication that is administered subcutaneously, which means it should be injected into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Administering enoxaparin at a 90-degree angle ensures proper absorption and reduces the risk of injecting the medication into muscle tissue, which could affect its effectiveness. Injecting the medication at a 45-degree angle may lead to improper absorption as it may not reach the subcutaneous tissue adequately. Injecting the medication into the muscle instead of subcutaneously can alter the absorption rate and therapeutic effects. Pinching the skin before injecting is not necessary for administering enoxaparin subcutaneously and may cause unnecessary discomfort to the client.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing for change of shift. Which document or tool should the healthcare professional use to communicate?
- A. SBAR
- B. SOAP
- C. DAR
- D. PIE
Correct answer: A
Rationale: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating critical information during shift changes or handoffs. It helps to ensure important details about a patient's condition and care are effectively communicated. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a note-taking format used in healthcare to document patient encounters, but it is not specifically designed for shift handoffs. Choice C, DAR (Data, Action, Response), and choice D, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), are not commonly used communication tools during shift changes in healthcare settings. Therefore, the correct choice is SBAR for effective communication during shift handoffs.
4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely to assess for complications?
- A. Serum sodium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. TPN delivers essential nutrients, including glucose, directly into the bloodstream. Clients on TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia due to the concentrated glucose infusion. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and prevent hyperglycemia-related complications such as osmotic diuresis, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte imbalances. While serum sodium, serum calcium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are important parameters in various clinical scenarios, they are not specifically associated with TPN administration. These values are not the primary indicators to assess for complications in clients receiving TPN.
5. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Discard the first voiding.
- B. Keep the urine in a single container on ice.
- C. Include the last voiding in the collection.
- D. Instruct the client to urinate into the toilet, stop midstream, and finish urinating into the specimen container.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection is to discard the first voiding. This initial voiding is typically not collected to allow for the accurate start of the 24-hour collection period. All subsequent urine voided within the specified time frame is then collected. Including the last voiding in the collection is important to ensure that the full 24-hour period is covered. It is essential to keep the urine cool by storing it in a single container on ice to prevent degradation of components. Instructing the client to stop midstream and finish urinating into the specimen container is not required for a 24-hour urine collection and is an unnecessary step.
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