Nursing Elites

1. The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place for decompression. What action should the LPN/LVN take to maintain patency of the NG tube?

• A. Irrigate the tube with normal saline every shift.
• B. Check the tube placement by auscultation.
• C. Secure the tube to the client's gown.
• D. Flush the tube with 5 mL of sterile water before and after medication administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain patency of the NG tube, it is essential to irrigate the tube with normal saline every shift. This action helps prevent clogging and ensures that the tube remains clear for effective decompression. Checking tube placement by auscultation (Choice B) is important for verifying correct placement but does not directly impact patency. Securing the tube to the client's gown (Choice C) is crucial for safety and comfort but is not directly related to maintaining patency. Flushing the tube with sterile water before and after medication administration (Choice D) is not the recommended method for maintaining patency of an NG tube, as normal saline is the appropriate solution for this purpose.

2. The nurse is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the nurse use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

• A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
• B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
• C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
• D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irrigating the wound with sterile normal saline is the correct technique for cleansing a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Sterile normal saline is a standard and safe solution that helps to remove debris and promote healing without damaging healthy tissue. Choice A, using povidone-iodine solution, can be cytotoxic and delay wound healing. Choice C, using hydrogen peroxide, can be cytotoxic, cause tissue damage, and delay wound healing. Choice D, using wet-to-dry dressing to remove eschar, is an outdated and non-selective method that can cause trauma to the wound bed and delay healing. Therefore, choice B is the best option for wound cleansing in this scenario.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

4. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with dyspnea and a productive cough. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?

• A. Measure the client's urine output.
• B. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
• C. Assess the client's apical pulse.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Auscultating lung sounds is crucial for assessing the extent of congestion in a client with CHF. The presence of crackles or wheezing can indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of CHF. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important to assess renal function but is not the priority in this situation. While assessing the apical pulse (Choice C) and checking blood pressure (Choice D) are important in managing CHF, they do not provide immediate information about the respiratory status and congestion level in the lungs, making auscultating lung sounds the most critical assessment.

5. A parent is reviewing safety measures for an 8-month-old infant with a nurse. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of safety for the infant?

• A. “My baby loved to play with the crib gym, but I took it out of the crib.”
• B. “I just bought a firm mattress so my baby will sleep better.”
• C. “My baby really likes sleeping on the fluffy pillow we just got.”
• D. “I put the baby’s car seat on the table after I put him in it.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because removing the crib gym prevents potential safety hazards such as choking or entrapment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they pose risks to the infant's safety. A firm mattress is recommended for infants to reduce the risk of suffocation. Soft mattresses and fluffy pillows increase the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby's car seat on a table can lead to falls or other accidents.

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