Nursing Elites

1. What will ensure the safe movement of a patient who is unable to move and needs to be pulled up in bed?

• A. Place the pillow under the patient's head and shoulders.
• B. Attempt to do it alone if the bed is in a flat position.
• C. Place the side rails in the up position.
• D. Use a friction-reducing device.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure the safe movement of a patient who is unable to move and needs to be pulled up in bed, it is essential to use a friction-reducing device. This device helps reduce the risk of injury to both the patient and the healthcare provider by minimizing the effort required to reposition the patient. Placing a pillow under the patient's head and shoulders (Choice A) may provide comfort but does not address the safety concerns associated with moving the patient. Attempting to move the patient alone (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to injuries for both the patient and the healthcare provider. Placing the side rails in the up position (Choice C) may not directly contribute to the safe movement of the patient in this scenario.

2. A client is receiving continuous IV fluid therapy via a peripheral vein in the left forearm. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed phlebitis at the IV site?

• A. Erythema along the path of the vein
• B. Pitting edema at the insertion site
• C. Coolness of the client’s left forearm
• D. Pallor of the client’s left forearm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema (redness) along the path of the vein is a classic sign of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein. This occurs due to irritation or infection at the IV site. Pitting edema (choice B) is not typically associated with phlebitis but suggests fluid overload or poor circulation. Coolness (choice C) and pallor (choice D) of the forearm are not characteristic signs of phlebitis but may indicate impaired circulation or reduced blood flow to the area.

3. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's health record and notes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?

• A. Single
• B. Stat
• C. Routine
• D. Now

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A routine prescription, such as lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily, is administered on a regular schedule with or without a termination date. It is a standard, ongoing prescription for maintenance therapy. Choice A, 'Single,' would typically refer to a one-time prescription. Choice B, 'Stat,' is used for prescriptions that are needed immediately or in emergency situations. Choice D, 'Now,' is not a common prescription type designation and is not applicable in this context.

5. A nurse at a screening clinic is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis. At which of the following anatomical areas should the nurse place the stethoscope to auscultate the aortic valve?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
• C. Left sternal border
• D. Fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct placement to auscultate the aortic valve is at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, which coincides with the aortic area. The choice stating 'Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line' is the correct answer for auscultating the aortic valve. Placing the stethoscope at the left sternal border would be more suitable for listening to the tricuspid valve. The fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line is the recommended area for auscultating the mitral valve. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer for assessing the aortic valve in a client with a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis.

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