HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A staff nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse about alternatives to the use of restraints on clients who are confused. Which of the following instructions should the staff nurse include?
- A. Remove clocks from the client’s room
- B. Use full-length side rails on the client’s bed
- C. Check on the client frequently while they are in the restroom
- D. Encourage physical activity throughout the day to expend energy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging physical activity throughout the day is an effective way to manage confusion in clients and reduce the need for restraints. Physical activity helps in expending energy, promoting circulation, and improving overall well-being. Removing clocks from the client’s room (choice A) may not directly address the issue of confusion or reduce the need for restraints. Using full-length side rails on the client’s bed (choice B) can actually increase the risk of entrapment and should be avoided. Checking on the client frequently while they are in the restroom (choice C) is important for monitoring safety but may not directly address the underlying issue of confusion and the need for restraints.
2. A client who is confused and pulling at the tubing of her IV is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take before requesting a prescription for restraints from the provider?
- A. Place the client in a room away from the nurses’ station.
- B. Limit the client’s visitors.
- C. Give the client washcloths to fold.
- D. Close the door of the client’s room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Providing the client with washcloths to fold is a non-restrictive intervention that can help distract and engage the client, potentially reducing the need for restraints. This action promotes a therapeutic and calming environment for the confused client. Placing the client in a room away from the nurses’ station (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of confusion and agitation. Limiting the client’s visitors (Choice B) may not directly assist in managing the client's behavior. Closing the door of the client’s room (Choice D) does not actively engage the client in a therapeutic intervention to address the behavior.
3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?
- A. Early decelerations
- B. Late decelerations
- C. Accelerations
- D. Moderate variability
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.
4. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?
- A. 16
- B. 12
- C. 6
- D. 14
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
5. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?
- A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
- B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
- C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
- D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.
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