HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for a client admitted with a CVA (cerebral vascular accident)?
- A. Risk for aspiration
- B. Impaired physical mobility
- C. Disturbed sensory perception
- D. Interrupted family processes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for aspiration' as it is a priority concern in clients with a CVA due to potential swallowing difficulties. Aspiration poses immediate risks such as pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Impaired physical mobility, while important, may not be as urgent as the risk for aspiration in this scenario. Disturbed sensory perception and interrupted family processes are not typically the most critical concerns in the acute phase of a CVA.
2. A healthcare professional is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client with vision loss. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the client on the sequence of foods to eat first
- B. Offer small-handle utensils for the client to use
- C. Thicken liquids served to the client
- D. Use a clock pattern to indicate food placement on the client's plate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a client has vision loss, using a clock pattern to describe food placement on the plate can facilitate independent eating. This method enables the client to locate different food items based on their positions, enhancing self-feeding abilities. Instructing the client on the sequence of foods to eat first (Choice A) may not address the visual impairment directly. Providing small-handle utensils (Choice B) can be helpful for clients with limited dexterity but may not specifically assist a client with vision loss. Thickening liquids (Choice C) is more relevant for clients with dysphagia, not vision loss.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Barrel chest
- B. Clubbing of the fingers
- C. Cough with sputum production
- D. Use of accessory muscles
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD. It indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Barrel chest is a common physical characteristic in individuals with COPD due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs but is not as acutely concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Clubbing of the fingers is a late sign of chronic hypoxia and is often seen in conditions with prolonged hypoxemia but is not as acute as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production is a common symptom in COPD due to excess mucus production but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress as the use of accessory muscles does.
4. During the initial physical assessment of a newly admitted client with a pressure ulcer, an LPN observes that the client's skin is dry and scaly. The nurse applies emollients and reinforces the dressing on the pressure ulcer. Legally, were the nurse's actions adequate?
- A. The nurse should have also initiated a plan to increase activity.
- B. The nurse provided supportive nursing care for the well-being of the client.
- C. Debridement of the pressure ulcer should have been performed before applying the dressing.
- D. Treatment should not have been initiated until the healthcare provider's prescriptions were received.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Providing supportive nursing care, such as applying emollients and reinforcing the dressing on the pressure ulcer, meets the immediate needs of the client and is in line with legal and professional standards. Option A is incorrect because increasing activity may not be directly related to the immediate skin care needs of the client. Option C is incorrect as debridement might not be immediately necessary based on the initial assessment. Option D is incorrect as nurses are often authorized to initiate treatments within their scope of practice without waiting for healthcare provider prescriptions, especially for routine care like skin moisturization and dressing reinforcement.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication prescription, which reads, 'digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.' Which of the following components of the prescription should the healthcare professional question?
- A. the medication
- B. the route
- C. the dose
- D. the frequency
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The healthcare professional should question the dose indicated in the prescription. In this case, '0.25' is incomplete without a unit of measurement, such as mg (milligrams). Without a specified unit, the dose lacks the necessary information for accurate administration. Choices A, B, and D are not incorrect components to question in medication prescriptions; however, in this scenario, the incompleteness of the dose is the most critical concern that needs clarification to ensure safe and effective medication administration.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access