HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for a client admitted with a CVA (cerebral vascular accident)?
- A. Risk for aspiration
- B. Impaired physical mobility
- C. Disturbed sensory perception
- D. Interrupted family processes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for aspiration' as it is a priority concern in clients with a CVA due to potential swallowing difficulties. Aspiration poses immediate risks such as pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Impaired physical mobility, while important, may not be as urgent as the risk for aspiration in this scenario. Disturbed sensory perception and interrupted family processes are not typically the most critical concerns in the acute phase of a CVA.
2. A nurse is caring for a competent adult client who tells the nurse, 'I am leaving the hospital this morning whether the doctor discharges me or not.' The nurse believes that this is not in the client’s best interest and prepares to administer a PRN sedative medication the client has not requested along with the scheduled morning medication. Which of the following types of tort is the nurse about to commit?
- A. Assault
- B. False imprisonment
- C. Negligence
- D. Breach of confidentiality
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse is about to commit false imprisonment by unlawfully restricting the client's freedom of movement. In this scenario, the nurse's actions of preparing to administer sedative medication against the client's will in an effort to prevent them from leaving the hospital constitute false imprisonment. Assault (choice A) involves the threat of bodily harm, which is not present here. Negligence (choice C) refers to a breach in the duty of care, which is not the primary issue in this situation. Breach of confidentiality (choice D) involves disclosing confidential information without consent, which is unrelated to the scenario described.
3. The client has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which symptom would be most concerning?
- A. Pain in the affected leg
- B. Redness and warmth in the affected leg
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Swelling in the affected leg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning symptom in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication where a blood clot travels to the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention. While pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected leg are common symptoms of DVT, shortness of breath suggests a more critical situation that necessitates urgent intervention.
4. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum albumin
- D. Serum sodium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.
5. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?
- A. At the time of admission
- B. The day before the patient is to be discharged
- C. When outpatient therapy is no longer needed
- D. As soon as the patient's discharge destination is known
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access