HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for a client admitted with a CVA (cerebral vascular accident)?
- A. Risk for aspiration
- B. Impaired physical mobility
- C. Disturbed sensory perception
- D. Interrupted family processes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for aspiration' as it is a priority concern in clients with a CVA due to potential swallowing difficulties. Aspiration poses immediate risks such as pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Impaired physical mobility, while important, may not be as urgent as the risk for aspiration in this scenario. Disturbed sensory perception and interrupted family processes are not typically the most critical concerns in the acute phase of a CVA.
2. When a client files a lawsuit against an LPN for malpractice, the client must prove that there is a link between the harm suffered and actions performed by the nurse that were negligent. This is known as:
- A. Evidence
- B. Tort discovery
- C. Proximate cause
- D. Common cause
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Proximate cause.' Proximate cause establishes the link between the harm suffered and the negligent actions performed by the nurse. In a malpractice lawsuit, proving proximate cause is essential to demonstrate that the nurse's actions directly led to the harm experienced by the client. Choice A, 'Evidence,' is incorrect as evidence is the information presented to support or refute a claim, not specifically the link between harm and negligence. Choice B, 'Tort discovery,' is incorrect as it does not specifically refer to establishing the link between harm and negligence. Choice D, 'Common cause,' is incorrect as it does not capture the legal concept of proximate cause in establishing liability in malpractice cases.
3. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The LPN/LVN recognizes that these symptoms may be related to a deficiency in which vitamin?
- A. Vitamin A
- B. Vitamin C
- C. Vitamin D
- D. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Vitamin B1 deficiency, also known as Thiamine deficiency, is common in clients with a history of alcoholism. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function, and its deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion and ataxia. Vitamin A, C, and D deficiencies do not typically present with confusion and ataxia in the context of alcoholism. Vitamin A deficiency mainly affects vision, Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums, and Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone disorders. Therefore, they are not the correct choices in this scenario.
4. When using an open irrigation technique for a client's catheter, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output.
- B. Add the amount of irrigant used to the urine output measurement.
- C. Measure the amount of irrigant used separately from the urine output.
- D. Document the total amount of fluid used for irrigation only.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when using an open irrigation technique for a client's catheter is to subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output. This subtraction helps accurately assess the client's output by accounting for the volume of irrigant introduced. Choice B is incorrect because adding the irrigant to the urine output measurement would falsely inflate the total output, leading to inaccurate assessment. Choice C is incorrect as measuring the amount of irrigant separately does not provide an accurate assessment of the client's total output as it disregards the irrigant's contribution. Choice D is incorrect as documenting the total fluid used for irrigation only does not differentiate between the irrigant and the client's actual urine output, which is crucial for accurate monitoring and assessment.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
- A. Hourly urine output
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
- D. Temperature every 2 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.
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