Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

• A. Increase in hematocrit
• B. Increase in respiratory rate
• C. Decrease in heart rate
• D. Decrease in capillary refill time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decrease in capillary refill time. In a client with fluid volume deficit, improving capillary refill time indicates that the perfusion status is improving due to the increase in fluid volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. An increase in hematocrit may indicate hemoconcentration due to fluid loss, an increase in respiratory rate may suggest respiratory distress, and a decrease in heart rate may not be directly related to fluid volume status.

2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who has a new prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Pad the client's wrists before applying the restraints.
• B. Evaluate the client's circulation every 8 hours after application.
• C. Secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails.
• D. Remove the restraints every 4 hours to evaluate the client's status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When applying wrist restraints, it is crucial to secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails to ensure the client's safety and prevent injury. Padding the client's wrists (Choice A) is not a standard practice and may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints. Evaluating the client's circulation (Choice B) is important but should be done more frequently than every 8 hours to ensure prompt detection of any circulation issues. Removing the restraints every 4 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or agitation in the client.

3. A registered nurse (RN) administered a patient�s morning insulin as the breakfast tray arrived at 0800. The RN performed a complete assessment at the same time. Then, the RN got busy with her other patients and did not check on the patient until 1400. At that time, she found the patient unresponsive with a blood glucose of 23. Both the breakfast and lunch tray were at the bedside untouched. Which of the following could the RN be charged with?

• A. Quasi-intentional tort
• B. Misdemeanor
• C. Negligence
• D. Juvenile offense

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Negligence is the failure to act in a reasonable, ordinary, and prudent manner, causing harm to someone who is owed the duty to care.

4. When in opposition to an immediate superior, a nurse manager should use which important strategy in a confrontation?

• A. Using 'I' language
• B. Using absolutes
• C. Using 'why' questions
• D. Using negative assertions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When in a confrontation, using 'I' language is crucial for a nurse manager. This approach allows the manager to express personal feelings without sounding accusatory, which can help reduce defensiveness and promote open communication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Using absolutes can come off as rigid and may escalate the conflict. 'Why' questions can be perceived as confrontational and may put the other person on the defensive. Negative assertions can lead to a more hostile exchange rather than fostering a constructive dialogue.

5. If a task is delegated to someone, they need to be granted the ___________ to complete the task.

• A. Authority
• B. Planning
• C. Organizing
• D. Controlling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Authority When a task is delegated, it is essential to grant the individual the authority to complete it. Authority refers to the power or right to give commands, make decisions, and enforce obedience. Planning (choice B), organizing (choice C), and controlling (choice D) are important aspects of management but do not directly address the need for authorization to carry out a delegated task.

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