Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• D. Assess the client's urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the LPN/LVN to take when a client with a history of diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps assess the severity of hyperglycemia and guides further interventions. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms by further diluting the blood glucose concentration. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) should be done based on the healthcare provider's orders and after assessing the blood glucose levels. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario.

2. A nursing assistive personnel (AP) is providing AM care to patients. Which action by the NAP will require the nurse to intervene?

• A. Not offering a backrub to a patient with fractured ribs
• B. Not offering to wash the hair of a patient with neck trauma
• C. Turning off the television while giving a backrub to the patient
• D. Turning the patient's head with neck injury to the side when giving oral care

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Turning a patient's head with a neck injury to the side when giving oral care can lead to harm or further injury. The neck should be kept in a neutral position to prevent exacerbation of the injury. Choices A, B, and C are not actions that require immediate nurse intervention. Not offering a backrub, not washing a patient's hair, or turning off the television are not critical issues that pose harm to the patient's well-being or safety.

3. During a Weber test, what is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Deliver a series of high-pitched sounds at random intervals.
• B. Place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead.
• C. Hold an activated tuning fork against the client's mastoid process.
• D. Whisper a series of words softly into one ear.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a Weber test, the nurse should place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead. This test is used to assess for lateralization of sound in a client with possible hearing issues. Choice A is incorrect because the Weber test does not involve delivering high-pitched sounds at random intervals. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the Rinne test, not the Weber test. Choice D is incorrect as whispering words into one ear is not part of the Weber test procedure.

4. During an admission assessment of an older adult client, a nurse should identify which of the following findings as a potential indication of abuse?

• A. Bruises on the arms in various stages of healing
• B. Recent weight gain
• C. Complaints of joint pain
• D. Frequent visits to different providers

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bruises on the arms in various stages of healing should be identified as a potential indication of abuse in an older adult. These bruises may suggest physical harm or neglect, which are concerning signs of abuse. Recent weight gain (Choice B) is not typically associated with abuse and can have various causes, such as dietary changes or health conditions. Complaints of joint pain (Choice C) are more likely related to musculoskeletal issues rather than abuse. Frequent visits to different providers (Choice D) could indicate seeking multiple opinions or healthcare needs and do not necessarily point to abuse.

5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

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