Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

3. A nurse in a provider's office is preparing to assess a young adult client's musculoskeletal system as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Concave thoracic spine posteriorly
• B. Exaggerated lumbar curvature
• C. Concave lumbar spine posteriorly
• D. Exaggerated thoracic curvature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a young adult's musculoskeletal system, the nurse should expect an exaggerated lumbar curvature (lordosis). This is a normal finding in young adults due to the natural curvature of the spine. Concave thoracic spine posteriorly (choice A) and concave lumbar spine posteriorly (choice C) are not typical findings as the spine should have normal curvatures. Exaggerated thoracic curvature (choice D) is also not a typical finding in young adults.

4. A client who is lactating is being taught about taking medications by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse recommend to minimize the entry of medication into breast milk?

• A. Drink 8 oz of water with each dose of medication.
• B. Use medications that have a short half-life.
• C. Take each dose right after breastfeeding.
• D. Pump breast milk and discard it prior to feeding the newborn.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Taking medications immediately after breastfeeding helps minimize the amount of medication that enters breast milk. By doing so, there is a longer interval between the medication intake and the next breastfeeding session, reducing the concentration of the medication in breast milk. Options A and B are incorrect as drinking water with medication or using medications with a short half-life do not directly minimize the entry of medication into breast milk. Option D is unnecessary and wasteful as pumping and discarding breast milk before feeding is not as effective as timing medication intake with breastfeeding to reduce medication transfer into breast milk.

5. When explaining the fecal occult blood testing procedure to a client, which of the following information should be included?

• A. Eating more protein is not necessary before testing.
• B. Multiple stool specimens may be required for testing.
• C. A red color change indicates a positive test.
• D. The specimen must not be contaminated with urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When performing fecal occult blood testing, it is crucial to inform the client that the specimen must not be contaminated with urine to prevent false results. Choices A and B are incorrect because eating more protein is not required before testing, and multiple stool specimens may be necessary for accurate results, respectively. Additionally, regarding choice C, a red color change, not blue, indicates a positive test result, making it an incorrect option.

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