Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

2. The caregiver is teaching parents about accidental poisoning in children. Which point should be emphasized?

• A. Call the Poison Control Center as soon as the situation is identified
• B. Empty the child's mouth in any case of possible poisoning
• C. Have the child move minimally if a toxic substance was inhaled
• D. Do not induce vomiting if the poison is a hydrocarbon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to emphasize emptying the child's mouth in any case of possible poisoning. This action is crucial to prevent further ingestion of the poisonous substance. Choice A is incorrect because calling the Poison Control Center should be one of the first steps, not waiting until the situation is identified. Choice C is incorrect as moving the child may spread or exacerbate the effects of the toxic substance. Choice D is incorrect because inducing vomiting can be harmful if the poison is a hydrocarbon, as it may lead to aspiration.

3. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse prepare a sterile field. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse identify as contaminating the sterile field?

• A. The nurse opens the sterile field on a wet surface.
• B. The nurse turns away from the sterile field.
• C. The nurse uses a non-sterile glove to touch the sterile field.
• D. The nurse touches the edge of the sterile drape with her hand.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Opening the sterile field on a wet surface contaminates it, rendering it unsafe for use. Moisture can carry microorganisms that can compromise the sterility of the field. Choice B is incorrect because turning away from the sterile field alone does not necessarily contaminate it unless the nurse touches non-sterile items. Choice C is incorrect because using a non-sterile glove to touch the sterile field directly introduces contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as touching the edge of the sterile drape with a hand may not necessarily contaminate the entire field, unlike opening it on a wet surface.

4. Upon completing the admission documents, the nurse learns that the 87-year-old client does not have an advance directive. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Record the lack of advance directive on the chart
• B. Give information about advance directives
• C. Assume that the client wishes a full code
• D. Refer this issue to the unit secretary

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to give information about advance directives to the client. By providing this information, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their care preferences. Choice A is incorrect because simply recording the lack of advance directive does not address the client's need for information. Choice C is incorrect because assuming the client wishes a full code without discussing it with them is not appropriate and may not align with the client's wishes. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should directly address the issue with the client rather than involving another staff member.

5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

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