Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

2. A healthcare provider in an office is preparing to auscultate and percuss a client’s thorax as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Rhonchi
• B. Crackles
• C. Resonance
• D. Tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a thoracic examination, normal findings should include resonance, which is the expected sound when percussing the thorax. Resonance indicates healthy lung tissue and air-filled spaces. Abnormal findings such as rhonchi and crackles suggest issues like lung congestion or inflammation. Tactile fremitus refers to vibrations felt on the chest wall during palpation and is not typically assessed during percussion and auscultation of the thorax.

3. A client is being taught about dietary management of hypercholesterolemia. Which of the following foods should be suggested to add to the diet?

• A. Avocados
• B. Fried chicken
• C. Whole milk
• D. Bacon

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Avocados are a good choice to suggest adding to the diet of a client with hypercholesterolemia because they are high in healthy fats, particularly monounsaturated fats, which can help manage cholesterol levels. On the other hand, fried chicken, whole milk, and bacon are high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which should be limited in a diet aimed at managing hypercholesterolemia. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

5. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. What is the most important action for the healthcare professional to take to ensure the chest tube is functioning properly?

• A. Milk the chest tube to ensure patency.
• B. Clamp the chest tube when moving the client.
• C. Ensure the water seal chamber is filled to the appropriate level.
• D. Secure the chest tube to the client's bed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ensuring the water seal chamber is filled to the appropriate level is crucial to maintain the effectiveness of the chest tube drainage system. This step helps prevent air from entering the pleural space, ensuring proper lung re-expansion. 'Milking' the chest tube is not recommended as it can cause damage to the chest tube and surrounding tissues. Clamping the chest tube is not advisable as it can lead to tension pneumothorax. Securing the chest tube to the bed is important for stability but does not directly impact the functioning of the chest tube.

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