a client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta blocker which side effect should the lpnlvn monitor for in this client
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

2. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

3. A nurse receives a report about a client receiving IV fluids infusing at 125 mL/hr but notes they have only received 80 mL over the last 2 hours. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. This step is crucial in ensuring that the IV fluids are flowing properly and that there are no blockages preventing the correct infusion rate. Increasing the flow rate (Choice B) without confirming the tubing's status could lead to potential complications if there is indeed an obstruction. Changing the IV site (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation unless there are specific clinical indications. Notifying the physician (Choice D) can be done after checking the tubing for obstruction, as the physician may need to be informed depending on the findings.

4. In a mass casualty scenario at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a mass casualty scenario, the triage nurse would prioritize the toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body for treatment last. This child is categorized as 'expectant' due to the extensive injuries, which are unlikely to be survivable even with immediate treatment. The other choices describe injuries that are serious but have a higher likelihood of survival with appropriate and timely intervention. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have increased intracranial pressure requiring urgent evaluation, the preschooler with leg fractures can be stabilized and treated effectively, and the school-age child with singed hair likely has superficial burns which can be managed promptly.

5. A client has C-diff infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate contact precautions when providing client care. C-diff (Clostridium difficile) is highly contagious, and contact precautions are necessary to prevent its spread. Giving the client chlorhexidine gluconate for hand hygiene (Choice A) is not specific to managing C-diff. Removing the protective gown first when exiting the client's room (Choice B) may increase the risk of contaminating oneself and the environment. Using alcohol-based hand rub when caring for the client (Choice C) is not sufficient to prevent the transmission of C-diff, as soap and water are more effective against this particular pathogen.

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