Nursing Elites

1. When reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.4
• B. Sodium 140
• C. Calcium 8.6
• D. Magnesium 2.0

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which symptom should the healthcare provider expect to observe?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Joint pain
• C. Vision changes
• D. Skin rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by impaired neuromuscular transmission. This results in muscle weakness, particularly in skeletal muscles that control eye movements, facial expressions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking. Joint pain (Choice B) is not a typical symptom of myasthenia gravis and is more commonly associated with conditions like arthritis. Vision changes (Choice C) may occur in conditions affecting the eyes, but they are not specific to myasthenia gravis. Skin rash (Choice D) is also not a typical manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Therefore, the correct answer is muscle weakness (Choice A).

3. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client following knee arthroplasty who requires thigh-high compression sleeves. What should the nurse do?

• A. Make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeve.
• B. Apply the sleeve tightly to prevent blood clots.
• C. Ensure the sleeve is snug and comfortable.
• D. Check that the sleeve is loose enough to avoid constriction.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeve. This allows for proper circulation and ensures that the sleeve is not too tight, which can lead to complications such as impaired blood flow or tissue damage. Choice B is incorrect because applying the sleeve tightly can actually cause harm rather than prevent blood clots. Choice C is incorrect as snugness alone may not guarantee proper fit. Choice D is incorrect as a sleeve that is too loose can be ineffective in providing the necessary compression.

4. A healthcare provider is planning to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client who requires IV fluids. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Insert the IV catheter without using a tourniquet.
• B. Use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to avoid injury to fragile skin or veins.
• C. Insert the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle.
• D. Use a smaller gauge catheter to reduce vein trauma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When initiating IV therapy in older adults, it is essential to use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to prevent potential injury to fragile skin or veins. The use of a tourniquet can lead to increased venous pressure and potentially cause vein damage in older adult clients. Choice A is incorrect because inserting the IV catheter without a tourniquet can make locating veins more challenging. Choice C is incorrect as inserting the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle is not a recommended practice and can increase the risk of complications. Choice D is incorrect because using a smaller gauge catheter may not be appropriate for older adults who may require a larger gauge catheter for adequate fluid administration.

5. The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?

• A. Feet
• B. Nail beds
• C. Perineum
• D. Oral cavity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications. Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments. Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects. Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.

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