Nursing Elites

1. When reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.4
• B. Sodium 140
• C. Calcium 8.6
• D. Magnesium 2.0

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.

2. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?

• A. SBAR
• B. SOAP
• C. PIE
• D. DAR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.

3. The LPN observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment.
• B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
• C. Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs.
• D. Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reassessing the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff is the most important action for the nurse to implement in this situation. Using the correct cuff size is crucial for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. By reassessing with a larger cuff, the nurse can ensure an accurate measurement and proper monitoring of the client's blood pressure. Choice A is not the best option as it doesn't address the immediate need for accurate blood pressure measurement. Choice C is not the most appropriate action at this time since the immediate concern is ensuring correct blood pressure assessment. Choice D, while important, is not the most critical step in this scenario where immediate reassessment is needed with the correct cuff size.

4. The patient has been in bed for several days and needs to be ambulated. Which action will the nurse take first?

• A. Maintain a narrow base of support.
• B. Dangle the patient at the bedside.
• C. Encourage isometric exercises.
• D. Suggest a high-calcium diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when a patient needs to be mobilized after being in bed for several days is to dangle the patient at the bedside. Dangling at the bedside is the initial step to assess the patient's tolerance to sitting up and moving. It helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and allows the nurse to evaluate the patient's response to upright positioning before attempting further ambulation. Maintaining a narrow base of support (Choice A) is related to assisting with ambulation but is not the first step. Encouraging isometric exercises (Choice C) and suggesting a high-calcium diet (Choice D) are not immediate actions needed to initiate mobilization in this scenario.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Barrel chest
• B. Clubbing of the fingers
• C. Cough with sputum production
• D. Use of accessory muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD. It indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Barrel chest is a common physical characteristic in individuals with COPD due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs but is not as acutely concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Clubbing of the fingers is a late sign of chronic hypoxia and is often seen in conditions with prolonged hypoxemia but is not as acute as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production is a common symptom in COPD due to excess mucus production but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress as the use of accessory muscles does.

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