Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. I can take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or any other medications that can increase the risk of bleeding without consulting their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that demonstrate understanding of warfarin therapy and its potential side effects. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain the effectiveness of warfarin, taking medication at the same time every day ensures consistent therapeutic levels, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding, which can be a side effect of warfarin therapy.

2. When should the nurse plan to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity as ordered by a client's provider?

• A. In the morning upon rising.
• B. Immediately after the client eats breakfast.
• C. Before the client goes to bed.
• D. After the client has had a drink of water.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct time to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is in the morning upon rising. This timing ensures the most concentrated sample as sputum produced overnight tends to accumulate and sit in the airways, providing a quality sample for testing. Collecting the specimen immediately after eating breakfast (choice B) may introduce food particles that could contaminate the sample. Collecting it before bed (choice C) may lead to a diluted sample due to daily activities. Collecting the specimen after having a drink of water (choice D) can also result in a diluted sample, impacting the accuracy of the test results.

3. During an integumentary assessment for a group of clients, a healthcare professional notes various skin findings. Which of the following findings should the professional recognize as requiring immediate intervention?

• A. Pallor
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Jaundice
• D. Erythema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, indicates inadequate oxygenation and requires immediate intervention. It suggests a severe lack of oxygen in the blood, which can be life-threatening. Pallor and jaundice are concerning findings but may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Pallor can be a sign of anemia or low blood pressure, while jaundice may indicate liver dysfunction. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is typically not an emergency and can be caused by various factors such as inflammation or increased blood flow to the area.

4. A healthcare provider is witnessing a client sign an informed consent form for surgery. Which of the following describes what the healthcare provider is affirming by this action?

• A. The signature on the preoperative consent form is the client’s
• B. The client understands the risks of the surgery
• C. The client is aware of all postoperative care instructions
• D. The client has no further questions about the surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a healthcare provider witnesses a client signing an informed consent form for surgery, they are affirming that the signature on the form belongs to the client. This is crucial for ensuring patient autonomy and informed decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while it is important for the client to understand the risks of surgery, be aware of postoperative care instructions, and have an opportunity to ask questions, these elements are not specifically affirmed by the healthcare provider witnessing the signature.

5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

Similar Questions