Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is reviewing the plan of care for a client with a newly placed colostomy. Which outcome would indicate effective client teaching?

• A. Client demonstrates how to irrigate the colostomy.
• B. Client verbalizes understanding of dietary changes.
• C. Client performs ostomy care independently.
• D. Client expresses feelings about the impact of the colostomy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because effective teaching is demonstrated when the client can independently perform ostomy care. This indicates that the client has understood and retained the information provided during teaching. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because demonstrating how to irrigate the colostomy, verbalizing understanding of dietary changes, and expressing feelings about the impact of the colostomy are important aspects of care but do not directly reflect the client's ability to apply the taught information in a practical setting.

2. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

3. An occupational health nurse is caring for an employee who was exposed to an unknown dry chemical, resulting in a chemical burn. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Irrigate the affected area with running water.
• B. Wash the affected area with antibacterial soap.
• C. Brush the chemical off the skin and clothing.
• D. Leave the clothing in place until emergency personnel arrive.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for an employee exposed to an unknown dry chemical is to brush off the chemical from the skin and clothing. This helps prevent further skin contact before irrigation can be done. Irrigating the affected area with running water is crucial after brushing off the chemical to minimize the exposure. Washing the affected area with antibacterial soap is not appropriate for chemical burns, as soap can react with certain chemicals and worsen the situation. Leaving the clothing in place until emergency personnel arrive may allow the chemical to continue to harm the skin and should be avoided.

4. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who reports chills and aching joints. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has an infection?

• A. WBC 15,000/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
• C. Platelet count 300,000/mm³
• D. Sodium 140 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell count (WBC 15,000/mm³) is a common indicator of infection as the body increases WBC production to fight off pathogens. In conditions like infections, inflammation, or stress, the WBC count can rise. The other options, hemoglobin, platelet count, and sodium levels, are not typically specific indicators of infection. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count assesses clotting ability, and sodium levels indicate electrolyte balance.

5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

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