Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is reviewing the plan of care for a client with a newly placed colostomy. Which outcome would indicate effective client teaching?

• A. Client demonstrates how to irrigate the colostomy.
• B. Client verbalizes understanding of dietary changes.
• C. Client performs ostomy care independently.
• D. Client expresses feelings about the impact of the colostomy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because effective teaching is demonstrated when the client can independently perform ostomy care. This indicates that the client has understood and retained the information provided during teaching. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because demonstrating how to irrigate the colostomy, verbalizing understanding of dietary changes, and expressing feelings about the impact of the colostomy are important aspects of care but do not directly reflect the client's ability to apply the taught information in a practical setting.

2. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the LPN/LVN implement?

• A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics.
• B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe.
• C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli.
• D. Offer a medication-free period to allow the client to engage in daily activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to implement is to give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. This approach helps maintain consistent pain management by providing the medication regularly, preventing the pain from becoming severe. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for severe pain before administering the analgesic may lead to uncontrolled pain levels. Choice C is inappropriate as the goal of pain management in hospice care is to provide comfort without unnecessary sedation. Choice D is also incorrect as offering a medication-free period may result in inadequate pain control for the client.

3. A nurse is preparing change of shift report after the night shift using one SBAR communication tool. Which of the following data should the nurse include when reporting background information?

• A. “Blood pressure 160/92 mm Hg”
• B. “Start the first dose of penicillin at 1200”
• C. “Pain rating of 5 on a scale from 0 to 10”
• D. “Code status: do-not-resuscitate”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When providing background information in a shift report using the SBAR communication tool, the nurse should include details related to medication administration and orders. This helps ensure continuity of care and accurate handover of responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D do not typically fall under background information for shift reports. A blood pressure reading, pain rating, and code status are more relevant to the patient's current condition and status, rather than background information about medications or orders.

4. A client has been coughing for 3 weeks and is beginning to cough up blood. The client has manifestations of which of the following conditions?

• A. Allergic reaction
• B. Ringworm
• C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
• D. Tuberculosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tuberculosis. Coughing up blood (hemoptysis) is a key symptom of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is a respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The other options are incorrect because an allergic reaction typically involves symptoms like itching, hives, or swelling, not coughing up blood. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection characterized by a red, circular rash, and systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects joints and skin without causing hemoptysis.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

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