a charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus mrsa which of the fol
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamental Practice Exam

1. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following statements should the charge nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Protecting others from exposure when transporting a client with MRSA is crucial in preventing the spread of infection. This statement demonstrates understanding of infection control measures. Stating that MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin (choice B) is incorrect; vancomycin is often effective against MRSA. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial (choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated. Discontinuing antimicrobial therapy when the client is no longer febrile (choice D) is incorrect because antimicrobial therapy should be completed as prescribed to prevent the development of resistant strains.

2. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

3. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal lung cancer. The nurse observes the client’s family assisting with all ADLs. Which of the following rationales for self-care should the nurse communicate to the family?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In situations like terminal illness, allowing clients to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) can help maintain their sense of control and dignity, providing comfort and a sense of normalcy amidst their health challenges. Choice A is incorrect because in a terminal stage, the focus is not on muscle strength or promoting physical healing but rather on enhancing the client's emotional well-being. Choice B, while highlighting the importance of privacy, is not directly addressing the client's need for control and autonomy. Choice D is incorrect as the priority in this scenario is not related to discharge requirements but rather the client's emotional and psychological needs during their terminal illness.

5. When assessing a client's neurologic system, what should the nurse ask the client to close their eyes and identify?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse asks a client to identify a number traced on the palm of the hand with their eyes closed, it assesses the client's ability to perceive touch sensations. This test specifically evaluates the tactile discrimination of the client. The other options do not test the client's ability to identify sensations accurately with eyes closed. Option A tests auditory perception, option C tests vibratory sense, and option D tests object recognition but not tactile discrimination, making them incorrect choices.

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