HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following statements should the charge nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the teaching?
- A. I should obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial.
- B. MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin, so another antimicrobial will be prescribed.
- C. I will protect others from exposure when I transport the client outside the room.
- D. To decrease resistance, antimicrobial therapy is discontinued when the client is no longer febrile.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Protecting others from exposure when transporting a client with MRSA is crucial in preventing the spread of infection. This statement demonstrates understanding of infection control measures. Stating that MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin (choice B) is incorrect; vancomycin is often effective against MRSA. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial (choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated. Discontinuing antimicrobial therapy when the client is no longer febrile (choice D) is incorrect because antimicrobial therapy should be completed as prescribed to prevent the development of resistant strains.
2. The patient diagnosed with athlete's foot (tinea pedis) states that he is relieved because it is only athlete's foot, and it can be treated easily. Which information about this condition should the nurse consider when formulating a response to the patient?
- A. It is contagious with frequent recurrences.
- B. It is most helpful to air-dry feet after bathing.
- C. It is treated with salicylic acid.
- D. It is caused by lice.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Athlete's foot, also known as tinea pedis, is a contagious fungal infection that can easily spread to other body parts, particularly the hands. It often recurs if not properly treated, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because while it is beneficial to air-dry feet after bathing to prevent moisture buildup, athlete's foot is commonly treated with antifungal medications, not salicylic acid. Choice D is incorrect because athlete's foot is caused by a fungal infection, not lice.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following measures should the professional take to prevent the spread of infection?
- A. Place a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow
- B. Use a disposable gown for contact precautions
- C. Place a client with MRSA in a private room
- D. Use a mask for clients with influenza
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tuberculosis is an airborne infection, and placing a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow helps prevent the spread of the infection by containing the pathogens. This measure is crucial as it prevents the dissemination of TB droplet nuclei to other areas. Choice B, using a disposable gown for contact precautions, is important for preventing the transmission of infections spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, placing a client with MRSA in a private room, is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA through contact with others. Choice D, using a mask for clients with influenza, helps prevent the spread of influenza through respiratory droplets. However, negative pressure airflow is specifically required for airborne infections like TB, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
4. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?
- A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
- B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
- C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
- D. No special preparation is necessary
Correct answer: D
Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which site is most appropriate for the healthcare professional to use?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Ventrogluteal site
- C. Dorsogluteal site
- D. Rectus femoris site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the most appropriate site for administering an intramuscular injection to an adult client. This site is preferred due to its large muscle mass and distance from major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of injury or complications. The deltoid muscle, while commonly used for vaccinations, may not be suitable for certain medications due to its smaller muscle mass. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve, which can lead to complications. The rectus femoris site is not commonly used for intramuscular injections in clinical practice.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access