HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A nurse at a provider’s office is discussing routine screenings with a 45-year-old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to proceed?
- A. “So I don’t need the colon cancer screening for another 2 or 3 years.”
- B. “For now, I should continue to have a mammogram each year.”
- C. “Because the doctor just performed a Pap smear, I’ll return next year for another one.”
- D. “I had my glucose test last year, so I won’t need it again for 4 years.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mammograms are recommended annually for women starting at age 40 or 45. This statement aligns with current guidelines for breast cancer screening in women without specific risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because colon cancer screenings are typically recommended at different intervals. Choice C is incorrect as Pap smears are usually done every 3-5 years based on age and risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because glucose testing is usually recommended more frequently, especially for individuals at risk for diabetes mellitus.
2. A client is being taught how to administer ear drops. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands?
- A. I will straighten my ear canal by pulling my ear down and back.
- B. I will gently apply pressure with my finger to the front part of my ear after putting in the drops.
- C. I will insert the nozzle of the ear drop bottle snugly into my ear before squeezing the drops in.
- D. After the drops are in, I will place a cotton ball all the way into my ear canal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Gently applying pressure to the front part of the ear after administering drops helps with absorption. Pulling the ear down and back is a correct technique for adults. Snugly inserting the nozzle of the ear drop bottle or placing a cotton ball all the way into the ear canal is unnecessary and can potentially cause harm or discomfort. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
3. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention. This finding suggests a potential surgical site issue that needs urgent attention to prevent further complications. Absent bowel sounds, pain level, and a slightly elevated temperature are common post-operative findings that may not necessarily require immediate intervention compared to a saturated abdominal dressing. Absent bowel sounds can be common after surgery due to anesthesia but may resolve with time. Pain and slightly elevated temperature are expected post-operative findings that can be managed with appropriate pain relief and monitoring. However, a saturated abdominal dressing indicates a potential ongoing issue at the surgical site that needs prompt assessment and intervention to prevent complications.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer methylprednisolone 10 mg by IV bolus. The amount available is methylprednisolone injection 40-mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 0.3 mL
- B. 0.25 mL
- C. 0.4 mL
- D. 0.5 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL to administer, use the formula: Dose required (mg) ÷ Stock concentration (mg/mL) = Volume to administer (mL). In this case, 10 mg ÷ 40 mg/mL = 0.25 mL. However, when rounding to the nearest tenth, the answer should be 0.3 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.3 mL. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B (0.25 mL) is the result obtained before rounding. Choice C (0.4 mL) and Choice D (0.5 mL) are incorrect calculations.
5. A nurse is caring for a group of clients. How should the nurse prevent the spread of infection?
- A. Place a client with TB in a negative pressure room.
- B. Use standard precautions only.
- C. Place a client with TB in a private room.
- D. Use barrier precautions only.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to place a client with TB in a negative pressure room. Tuberculosis (TB) is an airborne infectious disease, and placing the client in a negative pressure room helps prevent the spread of the infection by containing and filtering the air within the room. Standard precautions (Choice B) are important for preventing the spread of infection in general, but specific precautions are needed for airborne diseases like TB. Placing the client in a private room (Choice C) may not provide adequate ventilation and containment of airborne pathogens. Using barrier precautions (Choice D) alone is not sufficient for preventing the airborne transmission of TB.
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