a nurse at a providers office is talking about routine screenings with a 45 year old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or dia
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A nurse at a provider’s office is discussing routine screenings with a 45-year-old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to proceed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mammograms are recommended annually for women starting at age 40 or 45. This statement aligns with current guidelines for breast cancer screening in women without specific risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because colon cancer screenings are typically recommended at different intervals. Choice C is incorrect as Pap smears are usually done every 3-5 years based on age and risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because glucose testing is usually recommended more frequently, especially for individuals at risk for diabetes mellitus.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a young adult client. Which of the following injection sites is the safest for this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is considered the safest for intramuscular injections in young adult clients due to its location away from major nerves and blood vessels. The ventrogluteal site is preferred over the dorsogluteal site, as the latter is associated with a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The deltoid site is commonly used for vaccines but may not be suitable for all intramuscular injections due to smaller muscle mass. The vastus lateralis site is often used in infants and young children, but in young adults, the ventrogluteal site is preferred for safety and efficacy.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse how to perform a capillary blood glucose test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries. This sequence helps ensure proper blood collection without introducing contaminants. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is not necessary for capillary blood glucose testing. Choice C is incorrect as wiping the puncture site can introduce contaminants and alter the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as holding the finger below the heart level is not required for a capillary blood glucose test.

4. The nurse plans to assist a male client out of bed for the first time since his surgery yesterday. His wife objects and tells the nurse to get out of the room because her husband is too ill to get out of bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Checking the client’s blood pressure and pulse deficit is essential before mobilizing a client out of bed, especially after surgery. This assessment helps ensure the client's stability and readiness for mobilization. Administering oxygen or pivoting the client without prior assessment could pose risks if the client is not medically stable. Helping the client lie back down without proper evaluation may delay necessary interventions if the client is indeed ready for mobilization.

5. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

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