HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A mother tells the nurse that her 2-year-old toddler has temper tantrums and says 'no' every time the mother tries to help them get dressed. The nurse should recognize the toddler is manifesting which of the following stages of development?
- A. Trying to increase independence.
- B. Developing a sense of trust.
- C. Establishing a new identity.
- D. Attempting to master a skill.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trying to increase independence. Toddlers around the age of 2 often exhibit behaviors like temper tantrums and saying 'no' as they are asserting their independence and autonomy. This behavior is a normal part of their developmental stage where they are starting to explore and assert their own preferences and desires. Choice B, developing a sense of trust, is more relevant to infants during the trust vs. mistrust stage. Choice C, establishing a new identity, is typically associated with adolescence and identity formation. Choice D, attempting to master a skill, is more indicative of a child trying to learn and develop new abilities rather than the behavior described in the scenario.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to perform nasal tracheal suctioning for a client. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the healthcare professional to take?
- A. Hold the suction catheter with the non-dominant hand.
- B. Apply suctioning for 20 to 30 seconds.
- C. Place the catheter in a clean and dry location for later use.
- D. Use surgical asepsis when performing the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Using surgical asepsis when performing nasal tracheal suctioning is crucial to prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because the suction catheter should be held with the dominant hand to ensure better control and precision during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect as suctioning should be applied for no longer than 10 to 15 seconds to avoid trauma to the mucous membranes. Choice C is incorrect as the catheter should be disposed of properly after single-use to prevent cross-contamination and infection.
3. A client with an NG tube is receiving intermittent feedings through an open system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Rinse the feeding bag with water between feedings
- B. Tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30°
- C. Make sure the enteral formula is at room temperature
- D. Wipe the top of the formula can with alcohol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30°. Elevating the head of the bed prevents aspiration of the enteral formula, which is a priority in caring for a client with an NG tube. This action helps in reducing the risk of complications such as pneumonia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While rinsing the feeding bag, ensuring the enteral formula temperature, and maintaining cleanliness are important aspects of enteral feeding care, the priority is to prevent aspiration by keeping the head of the bed elevated. These actions can be implemented after ensuring the client's safety by maintaining the correct bed position.
4. A client with amphetamine toxicity and sensory overload is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Immediately conduct a thorough assessment.
- B. Encourage visitors to distract the client.
- C. Provide a private room and limit stimulation.
- D. Speak softly to the client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with amphetamine toxicity and sensory overload is to provide a private room and limit stimulation. This approach helps reduce external stimuli, which can exacerbate sensory overload, and creates a calming environment for the client. Encouraging visitors to distract the client may worsen sensory overload by adding more stimulation. Speaking softly, rather than at a higher volume, is more suitable to help maintain a calm environment. Therefore, the correct choice is to provide a private room and limit stimulation (option C) in this scenario.
5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.
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