a mother tells the nurse that her 2 year old toddler has temper tantrums and says no every time the mother tries to help them get dressethe nurse shou
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. A mother tells the nurse that her 2-year-old toddler has temper tantrums and says 'no' every time the mother tries to help them get dressed. The nurse should recognize the toddler is manifesting which of the following stages of development?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trying to increase independence. Toddlers around the age of 2 often exhibit behaviors like temper tantrums and saying 'no' as they are asserting their independence and autonomy. This behavior is a normal part of their developmental stage where they are starting to explore and assert their own preferences and desires. Choice B, developing a sense of trust, is more relevant to infants during the trust vs. mistrust stage. Choice C, establishing a new identity, is typically associated with adolescence and identity formation. Choice D, attempting to master a skill, is more indicative of a child trying to learn and develop new abilities rather than the behavior described in the scenario.

2. The nurse manager hears a healthcare provider loudly criticize one of the staff nurses within the hearing of others. The employee does not respond to the healthcare provider's complaints. The nurse manager's next action should be to

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse manager in this situation is to request an immediate private meeting with the healthcare provider and staff nurse. By doing so, the nurse manager can facilitate a more appropriate and professional discussion of the issues at hand in a private setting. Option A, which involves addressing the behavior quietly, may not effectively resolve the issue as it needs to be openly discussed. Option B is not advisable as the nurse manager should intervene to address the situation and provide support. Option C, notifying other administrative personnel, may escalate the situation unnecessarily before attempting to resolve it directly with the involved parties.

3. A nurse at a provider’s office is discussing routine screenings with a 45-year-old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to proceed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mammograms are recommended annually for women starting at age 40 or 45. This statement aligns with current guidelines for breast cancer screening in women without specific risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because colon cancer screenings are typically recommended at different intervals. Choice C is incorrect as Pap smears are usually done every 3-5 years based on age and risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because glucose testing is usually recommended more frequently, especially for individuals at risk for diabetes mellitus.

4. The client has expressive aphasia and needs assistance to communicate. Which method should the LPN use to best support the client's ability to express basic needs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a picture board with common needs. Clients with expressive aphasia have difficulty speaking but can often understand and use visual aids effectively. Using a picture board helps the client communicate basic needs more easily. Encouraging the client to speak slowly (choice B) may not be effective as the issue lies with expressive language, not speed. Writing down what the client says (choice C) may not always be possible or helpful for immediate communication as it does not address the communication barrier directly. Using hand gestures (choice D) may not be as clear or universally understood as a picture board, which can cause confusion and misinterpretation.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 60 beats per minute is a contraindication for administering digoxin, as it can lead to bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common adverse effect associated with digoxin toxicity. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL are within normal limits and would not warrant withholding the medication or contacting the healthcare provider in this context. Therefore, a heart rate of 55 beats per minute would prompt the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.

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