HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A nurse is collecting data from an older adult client as part of a neurologic examination. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect as changes associated with aging?
- A. Slower light touch sensation
- B. Some vision and hearing decline
- C. Slower fine finger movement
- D. Some short-term memory decline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: As individuals age, it is common to experience changes in vision and hearing, leading to some decline in these senses. Slower light touch sensation and slower fine finger movement are also typical findings associated with aging. However, some short-term memory decline is more closely related to cognitive aging rather than typical age-related changes in the neurologic system. Therefore, the correct answer is the decline in vision and hearing. Decreased risk of depression is not a typical finding in aging; in fact, the risk of depression may increase as individuals age.
2. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Joint contractures
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following measures should the professional take to prevent the spread of infection?
- A. Place a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow
- B. Use a disposable gown for contact precautions
- C. Place a client with MRSA in a private room
- D. Use a mask for clients with influenza
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tuberculosis is an airborne infection, and placing a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow helps prevent the spread of the infection by containing the pathogens. This measure is crucial as it prevents the dissemination of TB droplet nuclei to other areas. Choice B, using a disposable gown for contact precautions, is important for preventing the transmission of infections spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, placing a client with MRSA in a private room, is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA through contact with others. Choice D, using a mask for clients with influenza, helps prevent the spread of influenza through respiratory droplets. However, negative pressure airflow is specifically required for airborne infections like TB, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
4. A client reports mild back pain after receiving analgesia 1 hour ago. Which non-pharmacological pain method should the nurse plan to use?
- A. Apply an ice pack to the client's back for 1 hour.
- B. Remove distractions from the client’s room.
- C. Instruct the client to take deep rhythmic breaths.
- D. Encourage the client to apply a heating pad for 2 hours at a time.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should instruct the client to take deep rhythmic breaths as a non-pharmacological pain management method. Deep breathing can help the client relax, reduce stress, and manage pain effectively. Applying heat or ice for prolonged periods can lead to tissue damage. Removing distractions can be helpful for promoting relaxation but may not directly address the pain itself.
5. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?
- A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
- B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
- C. Morphine 2 mg IV
- D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access