Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

2. What is the most important aspect for the nurse to include in the discharge plan for a client performing his own dressing changes at home following abdominal surgery?

• A. Demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene
• B. Explanation of wound care technique
• C. Review of signs and symptoms of infection
• D. Instructions for when to contact the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical aspect for the nurse to include in the discharge plan for a client performing his own dressing changes at home following abdominal surgery is the demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene. Proper hand hygiene is essential to prevent the introduction of infection during dressing changes. While wound care technique, signs and symptoms of infection, and instructions for contacting the healthcare provider are all important components of the discharge plan, ensuring the client understands and practices proper hand hygiene is paramount to minimize the risk of infection. This choice takes precedence as it directly addresses infection prevention during the dressing changes, which is crucial for successful post-operative recovery.

3. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Gelatin
• B. Whole milk
• C. Cream soups
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Morning stiffness
• B. Joint deformities
• C. Weight loss
• D. Fever

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fever in a client with rheumatoid arthritis can indicate an underlying infection or a more serious systemic involvement, such as vasculitis or inflammation of internal organs. These conditions can lead to serious complications and require immediate medical attention. Joint deformities and morning stiffness are common manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis itself and may not be indicative of an acute issue. Weight loss can be seen in chronic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis but is not as concerning as fever, which suggests an acute process requiring prompt evaluation and intervention.

5. During a family assessment, a nurse is interviewing a family composed of a husband, a wife, and three children. One child is biological from this marriage, and the other two are from the wife’s previous marriage. How should the nurse identify this family form?

• A. Extended
• B. Blended
• C. Nuclear
• D. Alternative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blended.' This family is considered a blended family because it consists of children from previous marriages, along with the biological child of the current marriage. Choice A ('Extended') refers to a family that includes relatives beyond the nuclear family, such as grandparents or aunts/uncles. Choice C ('Nuclear') typically consists of a husband, wife, and their biological children only. Choice D ('Alternative') does not accurately describe the family structure presented in the scenario.

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