HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A 16-year-old enters the emergency department. The triage nurse identifies that this teenager is legally married and signs the consent form for treatment. What would be the appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Ask the teenager to wait until a parent or legal guardian can be contacted
- B. Withhold treatment until telephone consent can be obtained from the partner
- C. Refer the teenager to a community pediatric hospital emergency department
- D. Proceed with the triage process in the same manner as any adult client
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to proceed with the triage process in the same manner as any adult client. In this scenario, since the teenager is legally married, they have the legal authority to consent to their own treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the teenager, being legally married, can provide their own consent. Choice B is incorrect as it unnecessarily delays treatment by waiting for telephone consent from the partner, which is not required in this case. Choice C is incorrect as the teenager can receive appropriate care in the current emergency department setting without the need for referral.
2. When changing the client's dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client's surgeon for a client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention?
- A. A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
- B. Presence of serous drainage
- C. Edema around the wound
- D. Absence of granulation tissue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin may indicate an infection or inflammation of the wound site, which is critical to report to the surgeon. Erythema, redness, and warmth are signs of inflammation that could potentially be a sign of an infected wound. Serous drainage is a common and expected finding in healing wounds, indicating a normal healing process. Edema around the wound might be expected due to the body's response to tissue injury. The absence of granulation tissue in a wound healing by secondary intention may not be an immediate concern as it forms during the later stages of wound healing.
3. A nurse educator is conducting a parenting class for new guardians of infants. Which of the following statements made by a participant indicated understanding?
- A. “I will set my water heater at 130°F.”
- B. “Once my baby can sit up, they should be safe in the bathtub.”
- C. “I will place my baby on their stomach to sleep.”
- D. “Once my infant starts to push up, I will remove the mobile from over the crib.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Removing the mobile when the baby starts to push up prevents choking hazards as infants can reach and grab objects posing a risk of choking. Choice A is unsafe as setting the water heater at 130°F can scald a child. Choice B is incorrect because even when a baby can sit up, they still require close supervision in the bathtub. Choice C is unsafe as current guidelines recommend placing babies on their backs to sleep to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect or unsafe practices for infant care.
4. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?
- A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
- B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
- C. Morphine 2 mg IV
- D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.
5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula.
- B. Measure the client's vital signs.
- C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
- D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.
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