Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and lactose intolerance. What intervention will the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage dairy alternatives.
• B. Monitor intake of vitamin D.
• C. Increase intake of caffeinated drinks.
• D. Assist the patient with daily activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient diagnosed with osteoporosis and lactose intolerance is to monitor their intake of vitamin D. Since the patient has lactose intolerance, encouraging dairy alternatives (Choice A) would not be appropriate. Increasing intake of caffeinated drinks (Choice C) is not beneficial for managing osteoporosis and may even have negative effects on bone health. Assisting the patient with daily activities (Choice D) is a general nursing intervention that may not directly address the specific needs related to osteoporosis and lactose intolerance.

2. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the teaching?

• A. I will take my warfarin at the same time every day.
• B. I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.
• C. I should take my warfarin at bedtime.
• D. I should avoid eating foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking warfarin at the same time every day is essential to maintain a consistent blood level of the medication. This statement indicates that the client understands the teaching about the importance of consistency in medication timing. Choice B, regarding using a soft-bristled toothbrush, is not directly related to warfarin therapy and does not assess the client's understanding of warfarin administration. Choice C suggesting taking warfarin at bedtime is incorrect; it is generally recommended to take warfarin at the same time each day to avoid variations in drug levels. Choice D about avoiding foods high in vitamin K is relevant as vitamin K can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. However, it is not the best indicator of understanding the teaching on medication timing, which is crucial for warfarin efficacy.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
• B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
• C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
• D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 83 gtt/min
• B. 125 gtt/min
• C. 100 gtt/min
• D. 75 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL ÷ 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.

5. A nurse is caring for a competent adult client who tells the nurse, 'I am leaving the hospital this morning whether the doctor discharges me or not.' The nurse believes that this is not in the client’s best interest and prepares to administer a PRN sedative medication the client has not requested along with the scheduled morning medication. Which of the following types of tort is the nurse about to commit?

• A. Assault
• B. False imprisonment
• C. Negligence
• D. Breach of confidentiality

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is about to commit false imprisonment by unlawfully restricting the client's freedom of movement. In this scenario, the nurse's actions of preparing to administer sedative medication against the client's will in an effort to prevent them from leaving the hospital constitute false imprisonment. Assault (choice A) involves the threat of bodily harm, which is not present here. Negligence (choice C) refers to a breach in the duty of care, which is not the primary issue in this situation. Breach of confidentiality (choice D) involves disclosing confidential information without consent, which is unrelated to the scenario described.

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