Nursing Elites

1. The client is reviewing the signed operative consent with a nurse, who is admitted for the removal of a lipoma on the left leg. The client states that the consent form should say the removal of a lipoma on the right leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the surgical team of the client’s confusion
• B. Have the client sign a new surgical consent
• C. Add the correct leg information to the consent form
• D. Inform the surgeon about the client’s concern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should inform the surgeon about the client’s concern immediately. This is important to ensure that the correct procedure is performed on the intended leg. Communication with the surgeon is crucial to address any discrepancies in the consent form and prevent errors during the surgical procedure. Having the surgeon clarify and correct the consent form is essential to maintain patient safety and uphold the principles of informed consent.

2. The healthcare provider identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?

• A. Administration of plasma expanders
• B. Use of careful handwashing technique
• C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
• D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Proper handwashing technique is crucial in preventing the transmission of infections, especially in clients with burns where the risk of infection is high. It is the most effective intervention to reduce the risk of contamination and promote healing in these clients. While plasma expanders, topical antibacterial creams, and visitor restrictions are important considerations in burn care, meticulous hand hygiene takes precedence in preventing infections. Handwashing helps remove pathogens that could lead to infections, making it essential in the care of clients with burns.

3. A client with frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) asks the nurse about drinking juice daily to prevent future UTIs. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Orange juice has vitamin C, which deters bacterial growth.
• B. Apple juice is the most useful in acidifying the urine.
• C. Cranberry juice stops pathogens' adherence to the bladder.
• D. Grapefruit juice increases the absorption of most antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cranberry juice is known for its ability to prevent urinary tract infections by reducing the adherence of Escherichia coli bacteria to the cells within the bladder. This property helps in maintaining urinary tract health and preventing recurrent UTIs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while vitamin C in orange juice may have some benefits, it is not specifically known for deterring bacterial growth in the urinary tract. Apple juice does not significantly impact urine acidity, and grapefruit juice does not enhance antibiotic absorption, making them less effective choices for preventing UTIs compared to cranberry juice.

4. A client with a diagnosis of renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. The client's blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg.
• B. The client gains 1 kg in 24 hours.
• C. The client's potassium level is 5.5 mEq/L.
• D. The client's weight decreases by 0.5 kg in 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (C) is elevated and concerning in a client with renal failure receiving hemodialysis, as it can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring blood pressure (A), weight gain (B), and weight loss (D) are essential in clients on hemodialysis, but an elevated potassium level poses an immediate risk that requires prompt intervention.

5. The healthcare professional is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. What action should the healthcare professional take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to a painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's response to a painful stimulus indicates a purposeful reaction, which should be accurately documented as per the assessment findings. This documentation is essential for ongoing monitoring and communication of the client's condition to the healthcare team.

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