HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. The client is receiving discharge teaching for a new diagnosis of asthma. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should use my inhaler as soon as I begin to feel short of breath.
- B. I should avoid using my inhaler unless I am having an asthma attack.
- C. I should use my inhaler 30 minutes before exercise.
- D. I should rinse my mouth after using my inhaler.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The statement 'I should avoid using my inhaler unless I am having an asthma attack' (B) indicates a need for further teaching. It is important for clients to use their inhaler as prescribed, which may include regular use to prevent asthma attacks. Choice A is correct because using the inhaler when feeling short of breath can help manage asthma symptoms. Choice C is also correct as using the inhaler before exercise can prevent exercise-induced symptoms. Choice D is correct as rinsing the mouth after using the inhaler helps prevent oral thrush, a potential side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Therefore, option B is the most concerning statement that needs clarification.
2. The client has received a new diagnosis of heart failure, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
- B. Avoid foods high in sodium.
- C. Limit fluid intake to 1.5 liters per day.
- D. Increase intake of foods high in vitamin K.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Avoiding foods high in sodium (choice B) is essential for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid retention and decrease the strain on the heart. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, exacerbating heart failure symptoms. Increasing potassium intake (choice A) can be harmful in heart failure if not monitored closely as it can affect heart rhythm. Limiting fluid intake (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but the specific amount should be individualized based on the client's condition. Increasing vitamin K intake (choice D) is not a primary concern in heart failure management and is more relevant for clients on anticoagulants to manage blood clotting.
3. After an adult had an indwelling catheter removed, the nurse catheterizes them as ordered and obtains 200 cc of urine. What is the best interpretation of this finding?
- A. Is voiding normally.
- B. Has urinary retention.
- C. Has developed renal failure.
- D. Needs an indwelling catheter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The finding of obtaining 200 cc of urine after catheterization indicates urinary retention, as the bladder did not empty completely after the first void. This situation may require further assessment and intervention to address the issue of incomplete bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because voiding normally would indicate a larger amount of urine output. Choice C is incorrect as renal failure would typically present with other signs and symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as the presence of urinary retention does not necessarily mean the need for an indwelling catheter immediately.
4. The healthcare professional counts an adult's apical heartbeat at 110 beats per minute. The healthcare professional describes this as:
- A. Asystole
- B. Bigeminy
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tachycardia is a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. In this case, an adult's heart rate of 110 beats per minute falls within the range of tachycardia. Tachycardia can be a common physiological response to various stresses on the body, leading to an increased heart rate. Asystole refers to the absence of cardiac activity, bigeminy is a specific heart rhythm pattern, and bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.
5. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?
- A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
- B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
- C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.
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