Nursing Elites

1. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught pursed-lip breathing by the nurse. What is the purpose of this technique?

• A. To promote oxygenation by removing secretions.
• B. To reduce the amount of air trapped in the lungs.
• C. To increase the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled.
• D. To slow the respiratory rate and improve air exchange.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is used to increase the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled (C) in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). By doing so, it helps prevent air trapping and enhances gas exchange, ultimately improving respiratory efficiency. While removing secretions (A) and reducing air trapping (B) can be associated benefits to some extent, the primary goal of pursed-lip breathing is to optimize carbon dioxide elimination and enhance breathing mechanics. Slowing the respiratory rate (D) is not the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing.

2. The nursing staff in the cardiovascular intensive care unit is creating a continuous quality improvement project on social media that addresses coronary artery disease (CAD). Which action should the nurse implement to protect client privacy?

• A. Remove identifying information of the clients who participated
• B. Recall that authored content may be legally discoverable
• C. Share material from credible, peer-reviewed sources only
• D. Respect all copyright laws when adding website content

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To protect client privacy on social media, it is essential to remove any identifying information of clients who participated in the project. This ensures that sensitive information is not disclosed without consent and maintains confidentiality. Choice B is incorrect because while authored content may be legally discoverable, it does not directly relate to protecting client privacy on social media. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to the credibility of sources, not client privacy. Choice D is also incorrect as it focuses on copyright laws rather than client privacy protection.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. The client's weight increases by 1 kg in 24 hours.
• B. The client's peritoneal effluent is cloudy.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client's peritoneal effluent is clear and pale yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cloudy peritoneal effluent (B) is a sign of infection and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. It indicates the presence of peritonitis, a severe complication that requires prompt intervention. Weight gain (A) may indicate fluid overload but is not as urgent as a potential infection. Elevated blood pressure (C) is a common finding in clients with kidney disease and needs monitoring but does not require immediate reporting. Clear and pale yellow effluent (D) is a normal finding and does not raise immediate concerns.

4. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

5. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Platelet count.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia, the nurse should monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. These values indicate the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, which directly relates to the treatment of anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia.

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