Nursing Elites

1. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught pursed-lip breathing by the nurse. What is the purpose of this technique?

• A. To promote oxygenation by removing secretions.
• B. To reduce the amount of air trapped in the lungs.
• C. To increase the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled.
• D. To slow the respiratory rate and improve air exchange.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is used to increase the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled (C) in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). By doing so, it helps prevent air trapping and enhances gas exchange, ultimately improving respiratory efficiency. While removing secretions (A) and reducing air trapping (B) can be associated benefits to some extent, the primary goal of pursed-lip breathing is to optimize carbon dioxide elimination and enhance breathing mechanics. Slowing the respiratory rate (D) is not the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing.

2. The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?

• A. Perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.
• B. Decrease the client's fluid intake to prevent diarrhea.
• C. Massage the client's legs to reduce the occurrence of embolisms.
• D. Turn the client from side to back every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing range-of-motion exercises is essential in preventing contractures, which are common complications of immobility. These exercises help maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength, reducing the risk of contractures that can lead to functional limitations or pain for the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fluid intake does not prevent immobility complications, but it can lead to dehydration. Massaging the client's legs does not directly address the prevention of immobility complications like contractures. Turning the client from side to back every shift is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address complications of immobility like contractures.

3. The healthcare provider is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the healthcare provider use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

• A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
• B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
• C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
• D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to cleanse a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method is to irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline. Sterile normal saline is the preferred solution for wound cleaning as it is gentle and does not damage healthy tissues. It helps in removing debris and maintaining a moist environment conducive to healing. Povidone-iodine solution and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on tissues and delay wound healing. Removing eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing is a mechanical debridement method and should not be done without proper assessment and healthcare provider's order.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
• D. Position the client in high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (B) is the priority intervention for a client with COPD exacerbation to improve oxygenation. In COPD exacerbation, there is impaired gas exchange leading to hypoxemia, making oxygen therapy the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators (A) helps with bronchodilation but should come after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (C) and positioning the client in high Fowler's position (D) are also beneficial interventions, but the first step is to address the oxygenation needs of the client.

5. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

• A. 75 ml/hr
• B. 150 ml/hr
• C. 225 ml/hr
• D. 300 ml/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, set up a ratio proportion problem: 50 ml/20 min = x ml/60 min. Cross multiply to solve: 50 × 60 / 20 = 150 ml/hr. Therefore, the infusion pump should be set to deliver the secondary infusion at a rate of 150 ml/hr. Option A, 75 ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the correct calculation. Option C, 225 ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too high a rate based on the calculation. Option D, 300 ml/hr, is also incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation for the infusion rate.

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