Nursing Elites

1. When faced with caring for a close friend in a professional setting, which action should the staff member take first?

• A. Notify the friend that all medical information will be kept confidential.
• B. Explain the relationship to the charge nurse and ask for reassignment.
• C. Approach the client and ask if the assignment is uncomfortable.
• D. Accept the assignment but protect the client's confidentiality.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When faced with caring for a close friend in a professional setting, the staff member should first explain the relationship to the charge nurse and ask for reassignment. This is important to maintain professional boundaries, prevent conflicts of interest, and ensure that the care provided is unbiased and without compromising the friend's confidentiality. Choice A is incorrect because the priority should be on professional boundaries rather than informing the friend about confidentiality. Choice C is not appropriate as it puts the burden on the client to address any discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as accepting the assignment without addressing the potential conflict of interest could lead to compromised care.

2. A client in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease is very anxious and frequently asks about her deceased parents. Which intervention should the nurse implement to reduce the client’s anxiety?

• A. Remind the client that her parents have passed away
• B. Ask the client about her favorite memories with her parents
• C. Engage the client in an activity to distract her from thinking about her parents
• D. Reorient the client to the present reality and surroundings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Engaging the client in an activity to distract her from thinking about her deceased parents is the most appropriate intervention to reduce anxiety. This approach helps shift the focus away from distressing thoughts and can provide comfort and a sense of calm to the client.

3. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

4. The client has a chest tube. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure the chest tube remains unclamped at all times.
• B. Empty the chest tube every 2 hours.
• C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the chest.
• D. Assess for subcutaneous emphysema.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping the drainage system below the level of the chest (C) is crucial to ensure proper drainage and prevent backflow of air or fluid into the chest cavity. This position helps maintain the integrity of the closed drainage system. Ensuring the chest tube remains unclamped at all times (A) allows for continuous drainage. Emptying the chest tube (B) should be done as needed, not routinely every 2 hours. Assessing for subcutaneous emphysema (D) is important but not the most critical action in this scenario.

5. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase dietary intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid activities that increase the risk of falls.
• C. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
• D. Increase intake of vitamin D supplements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding activities that increase the risk of falls (B) is the most crucial instruction for a client with osteoporosis to prevent fractures. Osteoporosis weakens bones, making them more susceptible to fractures from falls. While increasing calcium intake (A) is important for bone health, avoiding falls takes precedence to prevent immediate harm. Avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight (C) is not directly related to osteoporosis management. Increasing vitamin D supplements (D) is beneficial for bone health, but fall prevention is more critical in this scenario.

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