Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a provider's office is collecting information from an older adult who reports that he has been taking acetaminophen 500 mg/day for severe joint pain. The nurse should instruct the client that large doses of acetaminophen could cause which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Liver damage
• B. Renal failure
• C. Gastric bleeding
• D. Heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Large doses of acetaminophen can cause liver damage, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and excessive amounts can overwhelm the liver's ability to process it, leading to hepatotoxicity. Renal failure (Choice B) is not typically associated with acetaminophen use. Gastric bleeding (Choice C) is more commonly linked to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) rather than acetaminophen. Heart attack (Choice D) is not a recognized adverse effect of acetaminophen, which primarily affects the liver when taken in large amounts.

2. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

• A. A nurse tied a client's restraints straps to the moveable part of the bed frame.
• B. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has TB before transporting her to radiology.
• C. A nurse administered a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due.
• D. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.

3. A healthcare professional is providing teaching to a client who had a new medication prescription. Which of the following manifestations of a mild allergic reaction should the professional include?

• A. Urticaria
• B. Ptosis
• C. Nausea
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of a mild allergic reaction. It presents as raised, red, itchy welts on the skin. Ptosis is drooping of the upper eyelid and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Nausea is a gastrointestinal symptom that can occur with various conditions but is not specific to allergic reactions. Hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction.

4. Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5.5 hours. How much heparin has the client received?

• A. 11,000 units.
• B. 13,000 units.
• C. 15,000 units.
• D. 17,000 units.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total amount of heparin received, multiply the infusion rate (50 ml/hour) by the total infusion time (5.5 hours). This results in 275 ml of the solution infused. Since there are 20,000 units of heparin in 500 ml, there are 800 units per ml. Therefore, 275 ml contains 220,000 units. However, the heparin is diluted in 500 ml, so the client has received half of this amount, which is 110,000 units. Therefore, the correct answer is 11,000 units. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

5. While auscultating the anterior chest of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, a nurse listens to the audio clip of breath sounds through her stethoscope. What type of breath sounds does the nurse hear?

• A. Crackles
• B. Rhonchi
• C. Friction rub
• D. Normal breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Normal breath sounds. In the scenario described, the nurse hears normal bronchovesicular breath sounds, which are moderate in intensity and resemble blowing as air moves through the larger airways during inspiration and expiration. Crackles (choice A) are typically heard in conditions like heart failure or pneumonia and are not present in this case. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched, continuous sounds often associated with conditions like chronic bronchitis or bronchiectasis. Friction rub (choice C) is a grating sound usually heard in conditions like pleurisy or pericarditis, which is not the case here where normal breath sounds are heard.

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