HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. When a healthcare professional makes an initial assessment of a client who is post-op following gastric resection, the client's NG tube is not draining. The healthcare professional's attempt to irrigate the tube with 10ml of 0.9% NaCl was unsuccessful, so they determine that the tube was obstructed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Attempt to irrigate the tube with a larger volume of saline.
- C. Replace the NG tube with a new one.
- D. Reposition the client to see if that helps the tube drain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: If an NG tube is obstructed and cannot be irrigated successfully, notifying the healthcare provider is the appropriate action to take for further management. This is crucial as the healthcare provider may need to assess the situation, provide guidance, or intervene with specific interventions. Attempting to irrigate the tube with a larger volume of saline (Choice B) may exacerbate the situation if the tube is truly obstructed. Replacing the NG tube with a new one (Choice C) should not be the initial action unless advised by the healthcare provider. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may not necessarily resolve the tube obstruction and should not be the primary intervention in this scenario.
2. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?
- A. Absence of a pulse
- B. Presence of a pulse
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?
- A. Contact
- B. Droplet
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droplet. Droplet precautions are required for infections that spread via droplets larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as pharyngeal diphtheria. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Airborne precautions are for diseases that spread through small particles in the air. Protective precautions are not a standard precautionary measure for specific infections like pharyngeal diphtheria.
4. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Gelatin
- B. Whole milk
- C. Cream soups
- D. Orange juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
- A. Hourly urine output
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
- D. Temperature every 2 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.
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