Nursing Elites

1. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?

• A. Prolonged use does not typically cause dark concentrated urine.
• B. It is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
• C. Avoid taking the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
• D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.

2. A patient uses an in-the-canal hearing aid. Which assessment is a priority?

• A. Eyeglass usage
• B. Cerumen buildup
• C. Type of physical exercise
• D. Excessive moisture problems

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient uses an in-the-canal hearing aid, cerumen buildup is a critical issue that needs to be regularly assessed. Cerumen can easily block the sound passage and affect the functionality of the hearing aid. Assessing and managing cerumen buildup is a priority to ensure the proper functioning of the hearing aid. Eyeglass usage, type of physical exercise, and excessive moisture problems are not directly related to the specific issue of cerumen buildup in in-the-canal hearing aids, making them lower priority assessments in this context.

3. What action should the nurse take to prevent the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client who is postoperative day 2 following hip replacement surgery?

• A. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest as much as possible.
• B. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the client's legs.
• C. Massage the client's legs to improve circulation.
• D. Encourage the client to perform ankle and foot exercises.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent DVT in a postoperative client is to apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to promote venous return. This helps prevent stasis of blood in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of clot formation. Encouraging bed rest (Choice A) may lead to decreased mobility and increase the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs (Choice C) is contraindicated in the presence of DVT as it can dislodge a clot. Encouraging ankle and foot exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for circulation, but SCDs are more effective at preventing DVT in this scenario.

4. A 10-year-old client is recovering from a splenectomy following a traumatic injury. The client's laboratory results show a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL and a hematocrit of 28 percent. The best approach for the nurse to use is to:

• A. Limit milk and milk products
• B. Encourage bed rest and quiet activities
• C. Plan nursing care around lengthy rest periods
• D. Promote a diet rich in iron

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging bed rest and quiet activities is crucial for a child recovering from a splenectomy with low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. This approach helps conserve energy, promotes healing, and allows the body to focus on rebuilding red blood cells. Limiting milk and milk products (Choice A) is not directly related to improving the child's condition. Encouraging bed rest and quiet activities (Choice B) is appropriate as it helps in conserving energy and preventing physical exertion. Promoting a diet rich in iron (Choice D) is beneficial for improving hemoglobin levels in the long term, but immediate rest and recovery take precedence in this scenario.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rhythm
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.

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