a nurse is planning to document care provided for a client which of the following abbreviations should the nurse use
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HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank

1. A healthcare professional is planning to document care provided for a client. Which of the following abbreviations should the professional use?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PC for after meals. PC stands for 'post cibum,' which is the appropriate abbreviation for 'after meals' in medical documentation. Choices B, QD, and C, BID, represent 'every day' and 'twice a day,' respectively, which are not specific to meal times. Choice D, PRN, signifies 'as needed,' which is also not related to meal timings. Therefore, for documenting care provided after meals, the most suitable abbreviation is PC.

2. When evaluating a client's use of a cane, which action should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to use a cane is to hold it on the stronger side of the body. This helps to provide support and maintain alignment. Option A is incorrect because the cane should be held on the stronger side, not the weaker side. Option B is incorrect as the top of the cane should be at the level of the greater trochanter, not the waist. Option D is incorrect because the client should move the weaker limb forward with the cane for stability.

3. A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.

4. A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about the administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Regulating oxygen flow at no more than 6 L/min via nasal cannula is a safe practice to prevent potential complications such as oxygen toxicity. Option B suggesting administering oxygen at a higher flow rate for better saturation is incorrect as it can lead to adverse effects. Option C is incorrect because using a high-flow nasal cannula for all clients is not necessary and should be based on individual client needs. Option D is incorrect as adjusting oxygen flow solely based on client comfort without considering the prescribed flow rate can compromise the effectiveness of oxygen therapy.

5. During an assessment, a client receiving tube feedings via NG tube shows signs of nasal mucosa irritation. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritation of nasal mucosa is a crucial finding that the nurse should report to the provider as it suggests potential complications with NG tube placement, such as improper positioning or mucosal damage. High potassium levels (Choice A) can be concerning but are not directly related to NG tube placement issues. Normal sodium levels (Choice C) and loose stools (Choice D) are common occurrences in clients receiving tube feedings and are not typically indicative of immediate complications that require urgent reporting.

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