HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s oculomotor nerve functions. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Check the client’s pupillary reaction to light
- B. Ask the client to read print from the Snellen chart
- C. Ask the client to identify different scents
- D. Use cotton to lightly touch the client’s cornea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Checking the client’s pupillary reaction to light is a key assessment to evaluate the oculomotor nerve function. The oculomotor nerve controls the pupil's constriction response to light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testing vision with a Snellen chart, identifying scents, or touching the cornea are not specific assessments for oculomotor nerve function.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which site is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to use?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Ventrogluteal site
- C. Abdomen
- D. Dorsogluteal site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen due to better absorption and reduced risk of injury to underlying structures. The deltoid muscle is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin due to the potential risk of injury to underlying structures. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more appropriate for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections.
3. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Increase in blood pressure
- C. Decrease in respiratory rate
- D. Increase in urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.
4. The nurse is providing care for a client with a wound infection. Which type of precautions should the nurse implement?
- A. Airborne precautions
- B. Droplet precautions
- C. Contact precautions
- D. Standard precautions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Contact precautions are necessary when caring for a client with a wound infection to prevent the spread of infection. Contact precautions involve practices such as wearing gloves and gowns, and ensuring proper hand hygiene. Airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted by small droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in the air, like tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets larger than 5 microns, such as influenza. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infection and include practices like hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment, and safe injection practices. In this case, since the client has a wound infection, the nurse should focus on implementing contact precautions to reduce the risk of spreading the infection to themselves or others.
5. A nurse is giving a change-of-shift report about a client he admitted earlier that day who has pneumonia. Which of the following pieces of information is the priority for the nurse to provide?
- A. Breath sounds
- B. Client’s history of smoking
- C. Current medication list
- D. Client’s family history of respiratory illness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, assessing breath sounds is crucial as it provides immediate information about the client's respiratory status. Changes in breath sounds could indicate complications like fluid accumulation or worsening pneumonia. While the client's history of smoking (Choice B), current medication list (Choice C), and family history of respiratory illness (Choice D) are important factors to consider, they are not as urgent or directly related to the client's immediate condition as assessing breath sounds.
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