Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s oculomotor nerve functions. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Check the client’s pupillary reaction to light
• B. Ask the client to read print from the Snellen chart
• C. Ask the client to identify different scents
• D. Use cotton to lightly touch the client’s cornea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking the client’s pupillary reaction to light is a key assessment to evaluate the oculomotor nerve function. The oculomotor nerve controls the pupil's constriction response to light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testing vision with a Snellen chart, identifying scents, or touching the cornea are not specific assessments for oculomotor nerve function.

2. A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

• A. A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client's medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse.
• B. A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation.
• C. A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client's durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client's care.
• D. A nurse discusses a client's status with the physical therapist who is caring for the client at the bedside.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIPAA guidelines specify that only healthcare professionals directly involved in a patient's care should access their medical information. Asking a nurse from another unit to assist with documentation involves sharing patient information with someone not directly caring for the patient, which violates HIPAA guidelines. Choices A, C, and D involve individuals directly involved in the client's care, making them appropriate actions in line with HIPAA regulations. Choice A involves educating a nursing student under the supervision of the nurse, which is permissible. Choice C involves communicating with the client's designated healthcare decision-maker, which is also allowed under HIPAA. Choice D involves discussing the client's status with another healthcare professional directly involved in the client's care, which is within HIPAA guidelines.

3. A client asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. They allow the court to overrule an adult client's refusal of medical treatment.
• B. They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness.
• C. They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.
• D. They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client's condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Advance directives specify the type of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or avoid in the event of a serious illness. Choice A is incorrect because advance directives do not allow the court to overrule a client's refusal of medical treatment; they empower the client to make their own healthcare decisions. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives do not permit a client to withhold medical information; they provide guidance on the client's treatment preferences. Choice D is incorrect because advance directives do not specifically address the actions of health care personnel in the emergency department; they focus on the client's treatment preferences in general.

4. A client has a sodium level of 125. What findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Abdominal cramping
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Increased thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Low sodium levels (hyponatremia) often present with various symptoms, including abdominal cramping. Abdominal cramping is a common manifestation of hyponatremia due to the altered electrolyte balance. Option B ('Elevated blood pressure') is incorrect because low sodium levels typically lead to decreased blood pressure, not elevated. Option C ('Decreased heart rate') is incorrect as low sodium levels are more likely to cause an irregular heart rate rather than a decreased heart rate. Option D ('Increased thirst') is incorrect because excessive thirst is more commonly associated with high sodium levels (hypernatremia) rather than low sodium levels.

5. A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

• A. Impaired peristalsis of the intestines
• B. Infection at the surgical site
• C. Fluid overload
• D. Inadequate pain management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.

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