HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s oculomotor nerve functions. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Check the client’s pupillary reaction to light
- B. Ask the client to read print from the Snellen chart
- C. Ask the client to identify different scents
- D. Use cotton to lightly touch the client’s cornea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Checking the client’s pupillary reaction to light is a key assessment to evaluate the oculomotor nerve function. The oculomotor nerve controls the pupil's constriction response to light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testing vision with a Snellen chart, identifying scents, or touching the cornea are not specific assessments for oculomotor nerve function.
2. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be
- A. Response to stimuli
- B. Bladder control
- C. Respiratory function
- D. Muscle strength
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.
3. A mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.
- B. Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy.
- C. A well-balanced diet promotes normal fetal development.
- D. Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.' Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because while multivitamin supplements are beneficial during pregnancy, the specific focus for preventing neural tube defects is on folic acid. Choice C is a general statement about a well-balanced diet and does not specifically address neural tube defects. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on dietary iron, which is important for overall health but not specifically proven to prevent neural tube defects.
4. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and is experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client's laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?
- A. Hyperphosphatemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypermagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms of muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. Checking the client's laboratory values for potassium will help confirm this diagnosis. Hyperphosphatemia (Choice A) is an elevated phosphate level in the blood, which is not consistent with the symptoms described. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is a low calcium level and typically presents with different symptoms than those mentioned in the scenario. Hypermagnesemia (Choice C) is an excess of magnesium in the blood and does not align with the symptoms of muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias observed in the client.
5. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?
- A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
- B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next morning.
- C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
- D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention is to give the missed dose at 1300 and adjust the schedule to administer daily at 1300. This approach ensures that the client receives the correct total daily dose of levofloxacin. Choice A is incorrect because contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form would not address the immediate need to administer the missed dose. Choice B is incorrect as administering the missed dose at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next morning would result in a missed dose for that day. Choice C is not the best course of action as notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report should come after addressing the immediate need to administer the missed dose and adjusting the schedule for future doses.
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