Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing exercises.
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
• D. Obtain a peak flow reading.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the most appropriate initial action for managing asthma-related shortness of breath. Bronchodilators help to open up the airways quickly, providing relief for the client. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may be beneficial in some situations but should not be the first action for acute shortness of breath in asthma. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also help improve breathing, but administering the bronchodilator takes precedence. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important in asthma management, but it is not the initial action needed to address acute shortness of breath.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. Which site is most appropriate for the healthcare provider to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Abdomen
• D. Dorsogluteal site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous heparin injections. The abdomen has a layer of subcutaneous fat and a good blood supply, making it an ideal site for subcutaneous injections. Using the deltoid muscle for heparin injections is not appropriate as it is typically used for intramuscular injections. The ventrogluteal site is more suitable for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve.

3. When evaluating a client's use of a cane, which action should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

• A. The client's stronger side holds the cane
• B. The top of the cane is parallel to the client's waist
• C. The client holds the cane on the stronger side of their body
• D. The client moves the cane 46 cm (18 in) forward

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to use a cane is to hold it on the stronger side of the body. This helps to provide support and maintain alignment. Option A is incorrect because the cane should be held on the stronger side, not the weaker side. Option B is incorrect as the top of the cane should be at the level of the greater trochanter, not the waist. Option D is incorrect because the client should move the weaker limb forward with the cane for stability.

4. A nurse prepares an injection of morphine to administer to a client who reports pain but asks a second nurse to give the injection because another assigned client needs to use a bedpan. Which of the following actions should the second nurse take?

• A. Offer to assist the client who needs the bedpan.
• B. Administer the injection the other nurse prepared.
• C. Prepare another syringe and administer the injection.
• D. Tell the client who needs the bedpan to wait while the nurse gives someone else medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The second nurse should prepare a new syringe and administer the medication to ensure proper and timely pain management. Administering another nurse's medication without preparation could lead to errors. Choice A is not the priority as the medication administration should take precedence. Choice B is not recommended as the second nurse should not administer medication prepared by another nurse. Choice D is inappropriate as patient needs should not be compromised for medication administration to another client.

5. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?

• A. Dystonia
• B. Akathisia
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.

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