HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. When caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and circulatory insufficiency, experiencing peripheral neuropathy and urinary incontinence, on which areas does the nurse focus care?
- A. Decreased pain sensation and increased risk of skin impairment
- B. Decreased caloric intake and accelerated wound healing
- C. High risk for skin infection and low saliva pH level
- D. High risk for impaired venous return and dementia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should focus on decreased pain sensation and increased risk of skin impairment due to the patient's conditions. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to decreased pain sensation, making the patient more prone to injuries without realizing it. Additionally, the combination of circulatory insufficiency, peripheral neuropathy, and urinary incontinence can increase the risk of skin breakdown and impaired healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific issues related to the patient's diagnoses and symptoms.
2. A client who is postoperative and has paralytic ileus is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?
- A. Absent bowel sounds with distention
- B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- C. Normal bowel sounds
- D. High-pitched bowel sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with paralytic ileus, absent bowel sounds with distention are expected due to decreased or absent bowel motility. This is a key characteristic of paralytic ileus, where the bowel is unable to contract and move contents along the digestive tract. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice B) are more indicative of increased peristalsis, which is not typically seen in paralytic ileus. Normal bowel sounds (choice C) may not be present in a client with paralytic ileus. High-pitched bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with paralytic ileus. Therefore, the correct assessment finding in this scenario is absent bowel sounds with distention.
3. A client who had a stroke requires assistance with morning ADLs. Which of the following interprofessional team members should the nurse consult?
- A. Registered dietitian.
- B. Occupational therapist.
- C. Speech-language pathologist.
- D. Physical therapist.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in assisting clients with daily living activities, making them crucial for a stroke patient requiring help with morning activities of daily living (ADLs). While a registered dietitian (A) may provide nutritional guidance, a speech-language pathologist (C) focuses on communication and swallowing disorders, and a physical therapist (D) primarily deals with mobility and physical rehabilitation. However, none of these professionals directly address the specific needs related to ADLs following a stroke as effectively as an occupational therapist.
4. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?
- A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
- B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
- C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
- D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the LPN/LVN recommend the client avoid?
- A. Fresh fruits
- B. Grilled chicken
- C. Whole grain bread
- D. Canned soup
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, canned soup. Canned soups are often high in sodium content, which can be harmful to individuals with hypertension following a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits, grilled chicken, and whole grain bread are generally healthier options with lower sodium content and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits provide essential vitamins and minerals, grilled chicken is a lean protein source, and whole grain bread offers fiber and nutrients without excessive sodium levels. Avoiding canned soup aligns with the goal of reducing sodium intake to manage hypertension.
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