HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. When caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and circulatory insufficiency, experiencing peripheral neuropathy and urinary incontinence, on which areas does the nurse focus care?
- A. Decreased pain sensation and increased risk of skin impairment
- B. Decreased caloric intake and accelerated wound healing
- C. High risk for skin infection and low saliva pH level
- D. High risk for impaired venous return and dementia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should focus on decreased pain sensation and increased risk of skin impairment due to the patient's conditions. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to decreased pain sensation, making the patient more prone to injuries without realizing it. Additionally, the combination of circulatory insufficiency, peripheral neuropathy, and urinary incontinence can increase the risk of skin breakdown and impaired healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific issues related to the patient's diagnoses and symptoms.
2. The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which finding indicates that the bladder irrigation is effective?
- A. The client reports minimal pain and discomfort.
- B. The urine appears clear and free of clots.
- C. The client has no signs of infection.
- D. The client is able to void independently.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presence of clear urine free of clots is an indicator that the bladder irrigation is effective. This finding suggests that the irrigation is preventing clot formation and ensuring proper drainage, which is crucial after a TURP procedure. The client reporting minimal pain and discomfort (choice A) may be a positive sign but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation. The absence of infection signs (choice C) is important but not specific to evaluating the bladder irrigation. The client being able to void independently (choice D) is a good sign overall but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation.
3. During the initial physical assessment of a newly admitted client with a pressure ulcer, an LPN observes that the client's skin is dry and scaly. The nurse applies emollients and reinforces the dressing on the pressure ulcer. Legally, were the nurse's actions adequate?
- A. The nurse should have also initiated a plan to increase activity.
- B. The nurse provided supportive nursing care for the well-being of the client.
- C. Debridement of the pressure ulcer should have been performed before applying the dressing.
- D. Treatment should not have been initiated until the healthcare provider's prescriptions were received.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Providing supportive nursing care, such as applying emollients and reinforcing the dressing on the pressure ulcer, meets the immediate needs of the client and is in line with legal and professional standards. Option A is incorrect because increasing activity may not be directly related to the immediate skin care needs of the client. Option C is incorrect as debridement might not be immediately necessary based on the initial assessment. Option D is incorrect as nurses are often authorized to initiate treatments within their scope of practice without waiting for healthcare provider prescriptions, especially for routine care like skin moisturization and dressing reinforcement.
4. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.
5. A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?
- A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed.
- B. Encourage the client to ambulate to resolve pneumonia.
- C. Obtain a prescription for portable oxygen while ambulating.
- D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.
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