Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning care for a 12-year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis affecting the elbow. Which one of the following should be the priority?

• A. Limiting fluids
• B. Client-controlled analgesia
• C. Applying cold compresses to the elbow
• D. Performing passive range of motion exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, the priority intervention is effective pain management. Client-controlled analgesia allows the child to self-administer pain relief as needed, promoting comfort and reducing stress. Limiting fluids (choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as hydration is essential to prevent complications. Cold compresses (choice C) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Passive range of motion exercises (choice D) are contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis due to the risk of further pain and tissue damage.

2. A nurse in a mental health unit is preparing to terminate the nurse-client relationship with a client who no longer requires care. Which concept should the nurse and client discuss in the termination phase of the relationship?

• A. Loss
• B. Autonomy
• C. Confidentiality
• D. Accountability

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the termination phase of a nurse-client relationship, discussing 'loss' is crucial to help the client understand and process the end of the therapeutic relationship and any emotional impact. This discussion can aid in closure and transitioning out of the professional relationship. 'Autonomy' refers to the client's right to make decisions about their care, which is important throughout the relationship but not specifically in the termination phase. 'Confidentiality' is essential for maintaining trust but is not the primary focus during termination. 'Accountability' involves being answerable for one's actions, which is important in nursing practice but not a central topic in the termination phase of the relationship.

3. A nurse on a surgical unit is receiving a client who had abdominal surgery from the postanesthesia care unit. Which of the following assessments should the nurse make first?

• A. Airway
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Surgical site
• D. Level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the airway first. Ensuring a clear and patent airway is crucial to maintaining adequate oxygenation and ventilation post-surgery. Assessing the airway takes precedence over other assessments as a compromised airway can lead to hypoxia and respiratory distress. Checking blood pressure, the surgical site, or level of consciousness are important but are secondary to ensuring the airway is clear and the client can breathe effectively.

4. A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?

• A. Linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder.
• B. Purulent drainage from both eyes.
• C. Decreased white blood cell count.
• D. Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.

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