Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted with sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse to use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?

• A. Tell me how you are feeling right now.
• B. Describe the pain you are experiencing.
• C. Can you tell me more about your back pain?
• D. When did the pain start and how severe is it?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Describe the pain you are experiencing.' This question is the most effective as it prompts the client to provide detailed information about the nature of the pain, including its characteristics, intensity, and location. This detailed description can help the nurse in assessing the possible cause and severity of the pain. Choices A, C, and D are not as effective as they are either too general ('Tell me how you are feeling right now'), redundant ('Can you tell me more about your back pain?'), or focused only on timing and severity ('When did the pain start and how severe is it?').

2. The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Check the client's identification and blood type.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs every hour during the transfusion.
• C. Administer the blood through a peripheral IV line.
• D. Verify the blood product with another nurse before administration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure the client's safety during a blood transfusion, it is crucial to verify the blood product with another nurse before administration. This step helps confirm the correct blood type and prevents transfusion reactions. While checking the client's identification and blood type (Choice A) is important, the ultimate responsibility lies with confirming the blood product before administration. Monitoring vital signs (Choice B) is necessary during a transfusion but does not directly address verifying the blood product. Administering blood through a peripheral IV line (Choice C) is a common practice but does not specifically ensure that the correct blood product is being administered, which is essential for the client's safety.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. This is a common side effect that nurses should monitor for in clients taking beta-blockers. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting are not typical side effects associated with beta-blockers. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for bradycardia in this client.

4. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Aortic regurgitation
• D. Tricuspid stenosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

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